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Absolute truth?

 
 
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 20 May, 2011 07:23 pm
@fresco,
fresco wrote:

....A pseudo-problem equivalent to Russell's Paradox. All that "question" indicates is that binary logic is a sub-field of general semantics.

What I mean by "absolute truth" is the transcendental truth of religion , which Rorty has pointed out is deemed "ineffable". All other "truths" are relative to axioms which are open to revision. A good example of that is the revision of parallel line axioms in Euclidean geoemetry leading to Projective geoemetry.


Mathematics is based on axioms, not philosophy. So anyone who denies the possibility of an absolute truth is committing philosophical suicide, which is confirmed by the insolubly contradictory nature of the statement, "There is no absolute truth."
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Fri 20 May, 2011 07:24 pm
@guigus,
That too. But I'm referring to the "mystical" sense of religion as re-ligare, to re-connect with the World.
guigus
 
  2  
Reply Fri 20 May, 2011 07:25 pm
@JLNobody,
JLNobody wrote:

That too. But I'm referring to the "mystical" sense of religion as re-ligare, to re-connect with the World.


Ah, etymology... the gym of philosophy! Only that the music sucks.

But I understand your feelings.
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Fri 20 May, 2011 07:28 pm
@fresco,
Casi siempre estamos de acuerdo.
Fil Albuquerque
 
  1  
Reply Fri 20 May, 2011 07:48 pm
@JLNobody,
That is odd for someone that opposes any state of affairs...do u get it ???
0 Replies
 
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 12:02 am
@guigus,
Quote:
Mathematics is based on axioms, not philosophy. So anyone who denies the possibility of an absolute truth is committing philosophical suicide, which is confirmed by the insolubly contradictory nature of the statement, "There is no absolute truth."


Sorry, but that appears to be word salad ! However, of you mean "analytical philosophy has died" following its dissociation from logical representationalism by Wittgenstein, Quine (et al) you are saying nothing new.
Fil Albuquerque
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 12:11 pm
@fresco,
Its amazing how people can set aside logic with logic...common fresco give me a break...
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 06:06 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Come on, Fresco. Give him a break.
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 06:42 pm
@JLNobody,
Here's the break.

The evidential support for the statement that "there are no absolute truths" is pragmatic in the sense that "truth" is "what works" and is always open to revision. That implies that "truth" has an aspect of temporality whereas "absolute truth" does not. So transcendentally "Absolute truth" is beyond the realm of any temporal agent seeking effective axioms, and it is from that transcendental level that "logicality" is being evoked. In the Wittgensteinian sense, the word "truth" has different meanings at the transcendental and pragmatic levels. (Just like in Russell's paradox "the barbers' self" has different meanings as "the shaver" and "the receiver of a shave")
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 07:28 pm
@fresco,
If THAT doesn't do it, what will?
Cyracuz
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 07:51 pm
@JLNobody,
Catchphrases of biblical proportions, I suspect might do the trick..
0 Replies
 
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 08:50 pm
@fresco,
If absolute truth doesn't exist, why is it that most people understand 1 + 1 = 2?
Fil Albuquerque
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 08:58 pm
@fresco,
A billion years ago it was true that today you would write the above post as one billion years from now it still will be true that you did so today...

...there´s no playing around with truth ...
(I honestly regret that so many fairly smart people miss it)

As simple as this:
ANY statement on correspondence between knowledge and truth, either falsifying or asserting anything requires and imply´s a true state of affairs as a key base to any kind of assessment.
The best example being to state that "there´s no truth" which is a contradiction in terms...
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sat 21 May, 2011 10:47 pm
@cicerone imposter,
Because 1+1 is just another way of saying 2.
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 May, 2011 12:06 am
@JLNobody,
And the "truth" of "1 + 1 = 2" rests on covert axioms about the nature of identity for the purpose of counting together with the meaning of the symbol "+". A trivial counter example to such axioms is when "two drops of water coalesce". The coherence of mathematical statements starts with experiential axioms.
Fil Albuquerque
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 May, 2011 12:14 am
@fresco,
...What coalesces ??? Laughing ( certainly not the TWO drops of water according to you )
...be mute is the end of that talk fresco...
0 Replies
 
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 May, 2011 12:20 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Quote:
A billion years ago

Laughing
Oh! So there's "objective temporality" is there ? ....is that another "Absolute Truth"?

And of course the "two drops" coalesce....it's built into the definition of "coalesence".
Fil Albuquerque
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 May, 2011 12:26 am
@fresco,
1 - Of course there is...in the sense that any temporal fluctuation has its own unique context in the overall picture...do you really believe that was such a big challenge to answer ???
Temporal fluctuations don´t super impose only appear to...they have their "own space" if you indulge my metaphor...

2 - ...you just did mute the concept of "one" or "two" that was the essence of my remark fresco...the "coalesce" thing is beside the point ! there´s nothing to coalesce without "two"...
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 May, 2011 12:43 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
I think the main point is that there is NO overall "picture", or at least there is nothing which can be said about it.
justintruth
 
  1  
Reply Sun 22 May, 2011 01:25 am
@guigus,
Check out:

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/mally/

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/nonexistent-objects/

It seems to be about what you are suggesting.

 

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