guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Sep, 2010 05:29 am
@High Seas,
High Seas wrote:

guigus wrote:

Unfortunately, Joe from Chicago did not try to teach me anything that I didn't already knew (neither was he willing to learn anything).

So then, are you going to use your administrator privileges to block me from answering to your posts? ...

Your "reality" exists only in your imagination. For instance: what is your source for thinking I have administrator privileges on this site? Finally: it's not only Joe who refused to "learn" from your magical thinking; it's also I who asked you to please not address me any longer, I won't bother replying.


So you address me and ask me not to address you in return? What is that? The right to keep others in silence? That was the reason why I did the joke about having administrator privileges, which you unfortunately didn't understand. Perhaps you can only understand jokes involving monkeys (poor monkeys, I doubt they behave like you).
0 Replies
 
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Sep, 2010 05:42 am
Now back to the issue (which is the division of zero by zero instead of monkeys), could anyone please point out a flaw in the following reasoning:

Quote:

The division of zero by zero is any number, since:
1. Any number multiplied by zero results in zero.
2. Division is defined as the inverse of multiplication.
0 Replies
 
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Sep, 2010 07:12 am
@High Seas,
High Seas wrote:
On L'Hopital's rule (really discovered by Bernoulli) you're only 3 centuries late - maybe you should start with pictures Smile
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/images/eps-gif/LHospitalsRule2_1000.gif
Quote:
While both f(x) and g(x) approach infinity as x->infinity, the limit of the ratio is bounded inside the interval [1/e,e], while the limit of f^'(x)/g^'(x) approaches 0.

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/LHospitalsRule.html


On division of zero by zero being different from the division of an infinitesimal by an infinitesimal (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Division_by_zero#Extended_real_line):

Quote:
Limits of the form

http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/9/e/0/9e02fc55fef49a98c8adf622e248994c.png

in which both ƒ(x) and g(x) approach 0 as x approaches 0, may equal any real or infinite value, or may not exist at all, depending on the particular functions ƒ and g (see l'Hôpital's rule for discussion and examples of limits of ratios). These and other similar facts show that the expression 0/0 cannot be well-defined as a limit.


So we are back at:

Quote:

The division of zero by zero is any number, since:
1. Any number multiplied by zero results in zero.
2. Division is defined as the inverse of multiplication.


0 Replies
 
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Sep, 2010 07:47 am
@High Seas,
High Seas wrote:
On L'Hopital's rule (really discovered by Bernoulli) you're only 3 centuries late - maybe you should start with pictures Smile
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/images/eps-gif/LHospitalsRule2_1000.gif
Quote:
While both f(x) and g(x) approach infinity as x->infinity, the limit of the ratio is bounded inside the interval [1/e,e], while the limit of f^'(x)/g^'(x) approaches 0.

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/LHospitalsRule.html


Your reasoning here is the same as that of someone who "discovers" that zero divided by zero equals one, since one multiplied by zero results in zero, so zero divided by zero must be well-defined. But then he or she discovers that it also equals two -- or three, or any other number -- since two -- or three, or any other number -- multiplied by zero also results in zero, so zero divided by zero is indeterminate.

In your case, one "discoveres" that for some pair ƒ(x) and g(x) the limit of ƒ(x)/g(x) as g(x) approaches zero equals an infinite value, so that limit must be well-defined. But then he or she "discovers" that for another pair ƒ(x) and g(x) that limit equals another value, and finally he or she "discovers" that for any pair ƒ(x) and g(x), that limit equals any real or infinite value or even does not exist, so the limit of ƒ(x)/g(x) as g(x) approaches zero is indeterminate.

This, of course, if we are willing to forget that an x approaching zero remains different from zero.

And we are back at:

Quote:

The division of zero by zero is any number, since:
1. Any number multiplied by zero results in zero.
2. Division is defined as the inverse of multiplication.
0 Replies
 
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Sep, 2010 09:37 am
Additionally, the reason why ƒ(x)/g(x) as x approaches zero is occasionally nonexistent is precisely because in this case we have an x approaching zero instead of zero itself: any nonzero value divided by zero is nonexistent (undefined), since no value different from zero multiplied by zero results in a nonzero value, so no wonder if we take zero to be some x approaching it we occasionally get a nonexistent result, just to remind us that:

1. Zero is nothing rather than something.
2. If something can approach zero, then that something must not be just identical to it.

So despite zero as an infinitesimal divided by zero as an infinitesimal being undefined (possibly nonexistent), zero as itself divided by zero as itself is rather indeterminate (always existent by being any number).

Indeed, the notion that ƒ(x)/g(x) as x approaches zero can be taken to represent zero divided by zero builds upon the idea that a number can be both different from zero and identical to it (an infinitesimal), which is a patent contradiction -- a contradiction that resides in the very heart of calculus -- which made Newton at first avoid championing it explicitly.

Now considering that modern mathematicians accept a number that is at once different from and identical to zero, it shouldn't be that much of a problem to accept that any truth must be false and any falsehood must be the truth it falsifies. However, the problem here is that we are no longer in the realm of mathematics -- which means mathematics does not account for everything, hence is no ultimate truth.
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Sep, 2010 10:05 am
@guigus,
A small correction:

guigus wrote:

Additionally, the reason why ƒ(x)/g(x) as x approaches zero is occasionally nonexistent is precisely because in this case we have ƒ(x) and g(x) approaching zero instead of being zero itself: any nonzero value divided by zero is nonexistent (undefined), since no value different from zero multiplied by zero results in a nonzero value, so no wonder if we take zero to be some ƒ(x) or g(x) approaching it we occasionally get a nonexistent result, just to remind us that:

1. Zero is nothing rather than something.
2. If something can approach zero, then that something must not be just identical to it.

So despite zero as an infinitesimal divided by zero as an infinitesimal being undefined (possibly nonexistent), zero as itself divided by zero as itself is rather indeterminate (always existent by being any number).

Indeed, the notion that ƒ(x)/g(x) as x approaches zero can be taken to represent zero divided by zero builds upon the idea that a number can be both different from zero and identical to it (an infinitesimal), which is a patent contradiction -- a contradiction that resides in the very heart of calculus -- which made Newton at first avoid championing it explicitly.

Now considering that modern mathematicians accept a number that is at once different from and identical to zero, it shouldn't be that much of a problem to accept that any truth must be false and any falsehood must be the truth it falsifies. However, the problem here is that we are no longer in the realm of mathematics -- which means mathematics does not account for everything, hence is no ultimate truth.
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Sep, 2010 04:37 pm
@guigus,
However, if the definition of an infinitesimal is that of a nonzero value, despite infinitely small, then there is no contradiction. If so, then the division between two infinitesimals cannot represent the division of zero by zero. By which we are back again at:

Quote:

The division of zero by zero is any number, since:
1. Any number multiplied by zero results in zero.
2. Division is defined as the inverse of multiplication.
solipsister
 
  1  
Reply Wed 29 Sep, 2010 12:29 am
@guigus,
you seem to have covered zero fairly thoroughly i might add

guigus
 
  1  
Reply Thu 30 Sep, 2010 07:01 pm
@solipsister,
solipsister wrote:
you seem to have covered zero fairly thoroughly i might add


Zero is much less my concern than its division by zero, which makes all numbers false, by making them identical to each other, despite depending on their being true to do so. I'm interested in the division of zero by zero as an instance of Variability (http://able2know.org/topic/160606-3#post-4349462).
High Seas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 7 Oct, 2010 05:54 am
@guigus,
What you term "variability" is nonsensical. To see why, consider division of any real number except zero by zero - and read Cantor on infinities.
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 8 Oct, 2010 06:00 pm
@High Seas,
High Seas wrote:

What you term "variability" is nonsensical. To see why, consider division of any real number except zero by zero - and read Cantor on infinities.


If you want me to seriously consider what you are saying, then you need to be a lot more specific.
JazzMinnie
 
  2  
Reply Thu 14 Oct, 2010 06:17 am
@guigus,
But zero does not fall into the divisibility rules of 3,6, or 9. But it does fall into 5, 10, and 2. So I would say 0 goes into 0, one time.
"because if we multiply two by zero then we also recover zero"
I know what you are trying to say here, but when multiplying you are taking the number x number of times e.x. 2 times 3 would be 3 groups of 2, or 2 groups of 3 which equals 6. But in 2 times zero, the reason why we recover zero is because when you have zero groups of 2 what do you have but zero? You have zero groups, no groups.
______________________________________________________
When you divide a number it results in a smaller number, why is it that when you divide a number into zero you get the same number?
High Seas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 14 Oct, 2010 10:55 am
@guigus,
Thanks, but please direct your attention to Jasmine instead - who's just come up with a novel interpretation of Lie algebras.
JazzMinnie
 
  1  
Reply Thu 14 Oct, 2010 02:51 pm
@High Seas,
If you're refferring to me as Jasmine then what Lie Algebras? If not nevermind.
High Seas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 14 Oct, 2010 04:54 pm
@JazzMinnie,
Lie was a mathematician. Lie algebras are what you seemed to be referring to when you observed an asymmetry concerning the number 2:
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/LieAlgebra.html
0 Replies
 
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Thu 14 Oct, 2010 06:01 pm
@contrex,
I disagree that zero by itself is not a number. It has value depending on how it it used. What is ground zero? It is the point at which a nuclear devise is activated. Zero also has value in programming computers. It's a value depending on how many zeros are used. We also hear of "less than zero." That is a value.
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 15 Oct, 2010 12:22 am
@JazzMinnie,
JazzMinnie wrote:

But zero does not fall into the divisibility rules of 3,6, or 9. But it does fall into 5, 10, and 2. So I would say 0 goes into 0, one time.


Sorry, but I didn't get this one.

JazzMinnie wrote:
guigus wrote:
because if we multiply two by zero then we also recover zero

I know what you are trying to say here, but when multiplying you are taking the number x number of times e.x. 2 times 3 would be 3 groups of 2, or 2 groups of 3 which equals 6. But in 2 times zero, the reason why we recover zero is because when you have zero groups of 2 what do you have but zero? You have zero groups, no groups.


Multiplication between two numbers has two factors and a product. It doesn't matter the order of the factors, hence which one you consider a "group." You can take "zero times two" as meaning "zero groups of two" or "two groups of zero." And if you take it to mean "two groups of zero," then you'll see that the product is about how much elements that final group has, which is zero plus zero equals zero. Then, "zero groups of two elements" means "no group of two elements," which has no element -- rather than simply "no groups."

JazzMinnie wrote:
When you divide a number it results in a smaller number, why is it that when you divide a number into zero you get the same number?


And I have another one for you: when we divide a number by itself we always get one, right? Well, you can say that zero divided by zero is always one, but you can also say that it is always two, or three...
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 15 Oct, 2010 12:29 am
@cicerone imposter,
cicerone imposter wrote:

I disagree that zero by itself is not a number. It has value depending on how it it used. What is ground zero? It is the point at which a nuclear devise is activated. Zero also has value in programming computers. It's a value depending on how many zeros are used. We also hear of "less than zero." That is a value.


As you just figured out, without zero negative numbers would no longer be possible: were zero not a number, negative numbers would not be numbers as well.
solipsister
 
  1  
Reply Fri 15 Oct, 2010 02:53 am
@guigus,
Quote:
were zero not a number, negative numbers would not be numbers as well.


what would they be?
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 15 Oct, 2010 04:33 am
@solipsister,
solipsister wrote:

Quote:
were zero not a number, negative numbers would not be numbers as well.


what would they be?


They wouldn't be. There was a time there were no negative numbers. This is an interesting text:

http://www-history.mcs.st-and.ac.uk/HistTopics/Zero.html
0 Replies
 
 

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