cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Wed 5 Jan, 2011 04:32 am
@guigus,
guigus, All I've got to say at this point is that you have the patience of a saint.

The good news is, I think I'm beginning to grasp a little of what you're trying to convey. Don't get your hopes up too much, but I want to thank you for taking the time with this old stubborn geezer whose gray matter has lost much of its learning ability.
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Wed 5 Jan, 2011 05:01 am
@cicerone imposter,
cicerone imposter wrote:

guigus, All I've got to say at this point is that you have the patience of a saint.

The good news is, I think I'm beginning to grasp a little of what you're trying to convey. Don't get your hopes up too much, but I want to thank you for taking the time with this old stubborn geezer whose gray matter has lost much of its learning ability.


Thanks for the complement, and don't bother: I am both glad you get it and thankful since you make me refine and clarify things also to myself.

Additionally, let me give you a reason for numbers not concerning quality.

According to Bertrand Russell, a number is a class of similar classes. Two similar classes have a biunivocal correspondence between their elements (thus having the same number of them). For example, a class of two ducks has a biunivocal correspondence with a class of two horses. A number is a class containing only and all classes with a biunivocal correspondence between their elements. So, since that class must have all possible qualities (all kinds of classes of all kinds of elements, without any limits) it must not concern any of those qualities, by definition -- having all possible qualities is the proper way of disregarding them. Finally, the number zero is the class of all empty classes, hence of a single class, while nothing is the absence of even those two classes.
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Jan, 2011 03:44 am
You can make a schematic representation of zero by drawing a circle (the empty class) within another circle (the class of all empty classes). This will show you that zero does not mean the absence of any elements -- an empty class -- but rather the absence of any biunivocal relations between the elements of its inner classes -- a class containing a single, empty class -- hence that zero regards the qualities of those (nonexistent) elements just as much as those (also nonexistent) biunivocal relations do, that is, not at all.
Ragman
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Jan, 2011 07:29 am
@guigus,
I understood it in the beginning, whether or not I expressed myself well in text 100%. (At times I attributed some confusion as I saw someone say division by zero equalled 1 and then quickly responded.)

The problem lay in the language and descriptions and depth provided here. As a former technical writer, I'd critique your writing teaching style, but you have had success as CI seems to grasp the concepts.

For my taste, you provide far too many technical terms and diversions that mean little to the audience or task here. No offense intended, but the KISS principle should apply here. Listing a term such as biunivocal relations without an explanation of what it means offers no substantive help and diverts attention from enlightening those that aren't engineering students or math heavies.

To me, it's a matter of separating the concepts of math or logical terms vs the language terms. Ne'er the terms meet as regards the math term zero. Abstract math terms are hard to explain to a lay audience. The physical world vs math concepts and number lines can boggle the mind when explained in text. The worst math teaching nightmare is explaining those pesky imaginary (i) numbers (An imaginary number is a square root of a nonpositive real number).
Ragman
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Jan, 2011 07:59 am
@guigus,
I had to look up the definition of "biunivocal relations " for a clearer (to me) explanation:

"Biunivocal Relation is a mathematical term meaning one-to-one. A biunivocal relation between sets A and B means that an element a from set A is related to one and only one element b from the set B which, in it's own right, is solely related to a.

The difference between this and univocal is that univocal does not exclude the possibility of many-to-one relations, where for example, one word has a single meaning but its synonyms have the same meaning. A biunivocal relation would require words to have a single meaning as well as it would require each meaning to be ascribed to a single word (no synonyms!)"
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Jan, 2011 12:18 pm
@Ragman,
Ragman, I completely understand the issues you are addressing against guigus. It was a lesson I learned early when I was promoted to management with Florsheim Shoe Company. My boss told me to write administrative letters to store managers as if writing to the dumbest one in the group; that would assure that they all understand my instructions.

That was one of the most valued lessons I learned to work in management, and it benefited my presentations to all levels of staff, management, and board of directors.

Glad you're putting in your 2 Cents here. Laughing
Fil Albuquerque
 
  2  
Reply Thu 6 Jan, 2011 01:40 pm
@cicerone imposter,
I really don´t believe, honestly, that you learn that so late in life...rhetoric ....
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Jan, 2011 02:58 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Your statement makes no sense.
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 7 Jan, 2011 05:50 am
@Ragman,
Ragman wrote:

I had to look up the definition of "biunivocal relations " for a clearer (to me) explanation:

"Biunivocal Relation is a mathematical term meaning one-to-one. A biunivocal relation between sets A and B means that an element a from set A is related to one and only one element b from the set B which, in it's own right, is solely related to a.

The difference between this and univocal is that univocal does not exclude the possibility of many-to-one relations, where for example, one word has a single meaning but its synonyms have the same meaning. A biunivocal relation would require words to have a single meaning as well as it would require each meaning to be ascribed to a single word (no synonyms!)"


The name "biunivocal relation" is incidental, what is most important here is the concept of similarity, which is this: two classes are similar if, by relating each and every element of the first class to just one element of the second and that second element back to just that same first element of the first class you end up with no unrelated elements in both classes. As you can see, the elements, in themselves -- in their qualities -- are irrelevant: which is why numbers -- which are the classes of only and all similar classes -- disregard qualities in favor of quantities.
Fil Albuquerque
 
  1  
Reply Fri 7 Jan, 2011 09:04 am
@cicerone imposter,
Geee, common Cic...did n´t you learn how to address less fortunate minds way before that ? And why do you vote down my honest remark ?
Fil Albuquerque
 
  1  
Reply Fri 7 Jan, 2011 09:07 am
@guigus,
Don´t mind the healthy harassment of my remark, but is n´t there the quality of quantity ?
That much is there I figure...
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Fri 7 Jan, 2011 10:39 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Honest, I didn't vote down your post; it wasn't me.
0 Replies
 
Owen phil
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Jan, 2011 07:33 am
@guigus,
guigus wrote:

If we ask whether dividing zero by zero equals one, then we must answer yes, because if we multiply one by zero then we recover zero. However, if we ask whether it equals two rather than one, then we must still answer yes, because if we multiply two by zero then we also recover zero. Likewise, the result of dividing six by two is three only because multiplying three by two results in six. Hence, the result of dividing zero by zero is any number, as multiplying any number by zero results in zero. So dividing zero by zero makes any number the same as any other number. And if all numbers are the same, then all operations between them are also the same. Yet still, in taking a single division of zero by zero with any single quotient, we must recognize it as a perfectly valid operation, since this quotient multiplied by zero results in zero. Nothing at each single division of zero by zero alone makes it invalid: each one is a place where all numbers falsify themselves. Conversely, these operations are only possible if any number is different from any other number, hence true, so every number must be true to be false -- in the division of zero by zero -- and false to be true -- since the division of zero by zero remains valid.

Likewise, whenever I say, "right now, I am lying," if what I am saying is true, then it must be false, and if it is false, then it must be true.


You are correct, if we define x/y as (a number z such that: x=y*z).
That is to say, 0/0 = (a number z such that: 0 = 0*z).
But (0*z = 0), is true for all numbers z.
Therefore,
0/0 = 0 and 0/0=1 and 0/0=2 etc..
This proceedure leads to the absurdities that you mention.

Logic/mathematics abhors contradictions..Bertrand Russell.

For example..
0/0 =df (a z: 0=0*z) -> 0=1.
~(0=1).
Therefore,
~(0/0 =df (a z: 0=0*z)).

You are wrong to define x/y =df (a z: x=y*z).
(Because it leads to contradictions.)

The correct definition of x/y, which does not lead to your absurdities is:
x/y =df (the z: x= y*z).

Your failure to distinguish between the indefinite article (a) and the
definite article (the), is the source of your errors here.

See: On Denoting..B. Russell.
http://www.cscs.umich.edu/~crshalizi/Russell/denoting/

D1. G(a z: Fz) =df Ez(Fz & Gz).
D2. G(the z: Fz) =df Ey(Az(z=y <-> Fz) & Gy).
D3. x/y =df (the z: x= y*z).

~(0/0=0).

Proof:

1. 0/0 = 0 <-> Ey(Az(z=y <-> 0=0*z) & y=0).
By: D3, D2.
2. 0/0=0 -> Ey((0=y <-> 0=0*0) & (1=y <-> 0=0*1)).
By: 1, AxFx -> (F0 & F1).
3. 0/0=0 -> Ey((0=y & 1=y).
By: 2, 0=0*0, 0=0*1.
4. ~Ey(0=y & 1=y). elementary theorem.
5. 0/0=0 -> contradiction.
By: 3, 4.
Therefore,
6. ~(0/0=0).
By (p -> contradiction) <-> ~p).
QED.

Similarly...~(0/0=1) and ~(0/0=2) and ~(0/0=3) etc..
That is to say, there is no number that is equal to 0/0.

~Ex(x=0/0) is a theorem of elementary arithmetic.

0/0 does not exist!

There is no thing that is equal to 0/0, including itself.
~(0/0=0/0), is tautologous.
Ragman
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Jan, 2011 08:03 am
@Owen phil,
Yeah, what he said! Laughing Wink
0 Replies
 
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Jan, 2011 10:45 am
@Owen phil,
Owen phil, Thanks for bringing me back to where I started on this merry-go-round. I always had this intuitive belief in 0/0=0, and the way you explained it confirms that belief.

I owe you some drinks.
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Jan, 2011 08:10 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil Albuquerque wrote:

Don´t mind the healthy harassment of my remark, but is n´t there the quality of quantity ?
That much is there I figure...


We are still talking about mathematics, which disregards quality...
0 Replies
 
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Jan, 2011 08:21 pm
@Owen phil,
Owen phil wrote:

guigus wrote:

If we ask whether dividing zero by zero equals one, then we must answer yes, because if we multiply one by zero then we recover zero. However, if we ask whether it equals two rather than one, then we must still answer yes, because if we multiply two by zero then we also recover zero. Likewise, the result of dividing six by two is three only because multiplying three by two results in six. Hence, the result of dividing zero by zero is any number, as multiplying any number by zero results in zero. So dividing zero by zero makes any number the same as any other number. And if all numbers are the same, then all operations between them are also the same. Yet still, in taking a single division of zero by zero with any single quotient, we must recognize it as a perfectly valid operation, since this quotient multiplied by zero results in zero. Nothing at each single division of zero by zero alone makes it invalid: each one is a place where all numbers falsify themselves. Conversely, these operations are only possible if any number is different from any other number, hence true, so every number must be true to be false -- in the division of zero by zero -- and false to be true -- since the division of zero by zero remains valid.

Likewise, whenever I say, "right now, I am lying," if what I am saying is true, then it must be false, and if it is false, then it must be true.


You are correct, if we define x/y as (a number z such that: x=y*z).
That is to say, 0/0 = (a number z such that: 0 = 0*z).
But (0*z = 0), is true for all numbers z.
Therefore,
0/0 = 0 and 0/0=1 and 0/0=2 etc..
This proceedure leads to the absurdities that you mention.

Logic/mathematics abhors contradictions..Bertrand Russell.

For example..
0/0 =df (a z: 0=0*z) -> 0=1.
~(0=1).
Therefore,
~(0/0 =df (a z: 0=0*z)).

You are wrong to define x/y =df (a z: x=y*z).
(Because it leads to contradictions.)

The correct definition of x/y, which does not lead to your absurdities is:
x/y =df (the z: x= y*z).

Your failure to distinguish between the indefinite article (a) and the
definite article (the), is the source of your errors here.

See: On Denoting..B. Russell.
http://www.cscs.umich.edu/~crshalizi/Russell/denoting/

D1. G(a z: Fz) =df Ez(Fz & Gz).
D2. G(the z: Fz) =df Ey(Az(z=y <-> Fz) & Gy).
D3. x/y =df (the z: x= y*z).

~(0/0=0).

Proof:

1. 0/0 = 0 <-> Ey(Az(z=y <-> 0=0*z) & y=0).
By: D3, D2.
2. 0/0=0 -> Ey((0=y <-> 0=0*0) & (1=y <-> 0=0*1)).
By: 1, AxFx -> (F0 & F1).
3. 0/0=0 -> Ey((0=y & 1=y).
By: 2, 0=0*0, 0=0*1.
4. ~Ey(0=y & 1=y). elementary theorem.
5. 0/0=0 -> contradiction.
By: 3, 4.
Therefore,
6. ~(0/0=0).
By (p -> contradiction) <-> ~p).
QED.

Similarly...~(0/0=1) and ~(0/0=2) and ~(0/0=3) etc..
That is to say, there is no number that is equal to 0/0.

~Ex(x=0/0) is a theorem of elementary arithmetic.

0/0 does not exist!

There is no thing that is equal to 0/0, including itself.
~(0/0=0/0), is tautologous.



Tell me: how can a nonexistent mathematical operation make so many computers crash?
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Jan, 2011 08:22 pm
@cicerone imposter,
cicerone imposter wrote:

Owen phil, Thanks for bringing me back to where I started on this merry-go-round. I always had this intuitive belief in 0/0=0, and the way you explained it confirms that belief.

I owe you some drinks.


Zero divided by zero equals zero, yes. And it equals one as well. And also two, three...

Zero divided by zero equals any number, just because any number multiplied by zero equals zero. There is no escape from that, hence from the limits of mathematics. That simple operation shows mathematics is only part of the story...
0 Replies
 
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Jan, 2011 08:23 pm
@guigus,
Computers crash? LOL Now, there's a twist I would never have thought of. What if computers never existed? Does that math still apply?
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Jan, 2011 08:28 pm
@cicerone imposter,
cicerone imposter wrote:

Computers crash? LOL Now, there's a twist I would never have thought of. What if computers never existed? Does that math still apply?


The division of zero by zero made math teachers crash long before doing the same with computers...
 

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