0
   

If Jesus was God ...

 
 
SWORD of GOD
 
  1  
Reply Sat 9 Feb, 2008 05:17 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;53098 wrote:
Argue with the scripts "if you must", for that is the "only" way you can "twist" them around to your perverted point of view. You asked, I directed you to the scriptures, if you do not believe the word that is written there, it seems like a personal problem. I have specifically shown "you" where "my" faith draws its validity from....that which is written. In turn you "can not" justify your faith "without" directing your beliefs away from the the Holy Scriptures. As I said, that being the circumstances, your argument is with God, not with he that but carries the message. Deal with it. It is very simple, God is an "entity" that is made with 3 separate and distinct divine beings, the Father(God), The Word(Jesus the Son of God) and the Holy Spirit. These are the 3 that bear record in Heaven,"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost; AND THESE THREE ARE "ONE". (1John5:7). Notice also that the writings in Genesis bear witness to God as being consisted of more than one being, "And God said, let "US make man in "OUR" image...." (Genesis 1:26). Further along we read, "And the Lord God said, Behold, the man is become as "ONE OF US"....." (Genesis 3:22). It's not hard to understand.

Also take "NOTE", the Hebrew word for God with a capital "G" is "Elohim"(in the original Hebrew text). This word is a "PLURAL NOUN" (the 'im' is indeed a plural ending in the original Hebrew language). Thus, in the literal sense it must mean God consists of gods. Thus we have God (with a capital "G") the entity, consisting of multiple beings as stated in (1 John 5:7). This is referred to in the scriptures as the "GODHEAD" (Acts 17:29, Romans 1:20, and Col.2:9) Compare this to other "entities" that, apparently, you have no trouble in understanding. A man and a woman are ONE in marriage, yet each does not lose their "individuality". A man, woman and their offspring make the entity known as a "family", yet this Single unit consists of several different individual parts, the man, the woman, and the children. Or the kingdom of God, also known as the church which Christ was the chief corner stone, it consists of millions of people, yet it is but a Single entity. Like I said, people take what is simple and complicate it with their own ideas. Yet, there is only "one" rightful owner and ruler of heaven, the Father God almighty who sits in rule over Heaven, and has temporarily given all power and authority over to His Son Jesus (Matt. 28:18), until such time as the enemies of Christ are at his feet, and at this time the reign of Christ ends with He(Christ) giving all control back to our Father(God) (1Cor. 15:24).

The Holy Spirit is the power of God that makes action and does what He is directed to do. He resides in Heaven as demonstrated when Jesus called Him to serve His commission as the "Spirit of Truth" (John 14 :16-31, 16:13). Thus He cannot be Jesus, because Jesus said that He would send for Him, He cannot be the Father because Jesus would pray to the Father to send Him. Also as demonstrated in the Gospel of Matthew 3:16, all 3 where present at exactly the same time and the same location, making different actions. Jesus was coming up out of the water, the Spirit was coming down from heaven in the form of a dove, and the Father was speaking from heaven and saying, "This is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased." Also note that He (The Holy Spirit) was there and making action in the beginning,"......and the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters." (Genesis 1:2). Just as was the Word(Jesus the Son of God), "and the Word was with God and the Word was God" (John 1), "The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made." (vs. 2-3). RD




I'm sorry but nothing new in what you posted. Same old sayings of all christian apologists which make no sense and has nothing to support it even from the distorted bible.

Now, here is something to think about:

If Jesus was God...

Then how come God needed an angel to stengthen Him !!?

"Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him (Jesus), strengthening Him." [Luke 22:43]


[Luke 22:41-43]
41 And He (Jesus) withdrew from them about a stone's throw, Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him, strengthening Him.and He knelt down and began to pray,
42saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."
43 Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him (Jesus), strengthening Him."


Angels only strengthen Prophets.
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Sat 9 Feb, 2008 08:35 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;53086 wrote:
Because it the proper method....per instruction. 2Tim 2:14-15. Have you, just as many of us have, been presented something that needs assembly, like a bike or something to that nature? What's the first thing that most people do? They discard the instructions and proceed to piece together something that must be assembled in a proper order, and after the fact, what we are looking at is.....something that might be functional but we have a handful of articles left....these are contradictions, if they but are placed in their proper positions all works well and we have a better, more reliable tool to use. The Bible is NOT a single book, it is a correlation of things revealed through inspiration at different points of the Judeo Christian faith. When something is read to contradict another revelation....it cannot be correctly understood, because ALL is the product of ONE GOD. And, just as stated when that which is revealed is a product of properly dividing those truths which have been revealed.....WE HAVE "EDIFICATION".

You keep claiming "contradictions" but you cannot prove such, that's the whole point. What you are claiming are things claimed for over 2000 years, and in all that time nothing has been empirically proven to be a contradiction, only "theorized" as such....not proven. RD
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Sat 9 Feb, 2008 09:08 pm
@SWORD of GOD,
SWORD of GOD;53100 wrote:
I'm sorry but nothing new in what you posted. Same old sayings of all christian apologists which make no sense and has nothing to support it even from the distorted bible.

Now, here is something to think about:

If Jesus was God...

Then how come God needed an angel to stengthen Him !!?

"Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him (Jesus), strengthening Him." [Luke 22:43]


[Luke 22:41-43]
41 And He (Jesus) withdrew from them about a stone's throw, Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him, strengthening Him.and He knelt down and began to pray,
42saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."
43 Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him (Jesus), strengthening Him."


Angels only strengthen Prophets.


All that can be done is present the truth that is written, the decision to accept it or not is up to you. It does not matter from which translation that truth is drawn, a true translation is only a verbatim account of what is presented, the message and truth presented remains the same. Read from any translation you wish and Genesis 1:26 will still state the fact that God said, "Let "us" make man in "our" image, the same for Genesis 3:22, "......man is become as "one of US". Genes 11:7, "Let "US" go down and confuse their language....". Isaiah 6:8, ".....Whom shall I send and who will go for "US".

Read the text from the Bible that you are claiming is a "different truth" and you will find, the truth does not change, the only thing that changes is man's customs in an attempt to change what is written to justify a faith that is contrary to that truth. RD
SWORD of GOD
 
  1  
Reply Sat 9 Feb, 2008 09:18 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;53124 wrote:
All that can be done is present the truth that is written, the decision to accept it or not is up to you. It does not matter from which translation that truth is drawn, a true translation is only a verbatim account of what is presented, the message and truth presented remains the same. Read from any translation you wish and Genesis 1:26 will still state the fact that God said, "Let "us" make man in "our" image, the same for Genesis 3:22, "......man is become as "one of US". Genes 11:7, "Let "US" go down and confuse their language....". Isaiah 6:8, ".....Whom shall I send and who will go for "US".

Read the text from the Bible that you are claiming is a "different truth" and you will find, the truth does not change, the only thing that changes is man's customs in an attempt to change what is written to justify a faith that is contrary to that truth. RD


I will stop my dialogue with you here as you got no sensible answers to any of the simple questions I asked you reagarding your personal assumptions about Jesus (peace be upon him). The truth is clear and simple for those who are honestly seeking it. Jesus (peace be upon him) never spoke a thing in secret.

“Jesus answered him, "I have spoken openly to the world; I always taught in synagogues and in the temple, where all the Jews come together; and I spoke nothing in secret.” [John 18: 20]
0 Replies
 
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Sat 9 Feb, 2008 10:46 pm
@Fatal Freedoms,
Fatal_Freedoms;53115 wrote:


This is really a joke and a total misunderstanding of the scripts. We shall take them one at a time and point out the "absurdity" in each, as the only thing being contradictory is the ignorance of the ones that you clearly "parroted" this secular nonsense form. Shall we get started? One at a time, the rest will fold like building built upon the sands of deception ignorance which they constructed.

No. 1---its appears that the only contradiction is you claiming there is a contradiction. Matthew 1:17 does clearly state there are 14 generations from Abraham to David. However Matthew 1:2, only starts the process of showing the chronological order in that which is claimed in 1:17, "Abraham begat Iaac; and Isaac begat Jacob....etc. Just where is 13 generations claimed in Matt 1:2? Have made a typo?

No. 2----Just where is the verse that says "Jesus never made such a statement"? Are you trying to claim a contradiction on facts which are not in evidence? Just how do you know that Jesus did not say this thing that "you" claim He never spoke. As I said, show me the verse that says that Christ never said such a thing, then you will have a contradiction. If not, we must go with what is written, such as, "And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world could not contain the books that should be written. Amen." (John 21:25). Things "not written" can not be concluded to contradict the things were are clearly written. Show me the book, chapter, and verse in which Jesus never said, "It is more blessed to give than to receive", and I concede to your point that He never said it. If not, moving on.

No. 3---Apparently you have your miracles confused, In the Book of Matthew 8:13-14 the context of that which is presented it that Jesus is speaking of the illness that the "CENTURIONS SERVANT" was taken sick of, "the palsy". Jesus proclaimed that the Centurions faith was such that He (Christ) did not even have to physically visit, and told the Centurion to go on his way, and his servant was healed in the same hour (vss. 6-13). Starting in verse 14 we find Jesus coming to the house of Peter, and He saw that Peter's mother in-law laid sick with a fever. Just where is the contradiction? What you speak of are representative of two entirely different people and illnesses. The verses you claim make contradiction in Mark 1:29-30 again are speaking of Peter's Mother in-law(sick with a fever) and then in Mark 1:40-41 this is in the fact the only passages concerning the "leaper". Next.


No. 4. You speak of a contradiction, where is the contradiction? In the times of Christ in the 1st century, the practice of Metonyimy was prevalent. There is no contradiction of the truth that both Matthew and Mark are pointing to in the context of the miracle that was performed and the faith that the Centurion held being the important factor to consider when recording the fact of witnessing the miracles of the Christ. Because the intermediaries came directly to Jesus, Matthew merely considered this the same as the Centurion himself being present. His accounts states, "....there came onto Him a centurion beseeching Him." The account of Luke simply goes into more detail and presents the facts of the customs and cultures concerning how the Jewish and Gentiles cultures were different. The Roman centurion knew that the Jews did not look with favor upon any Gentile, thus the account of Luke is more detailed in pointing out this fact. There is no contradiction the truth, only a contradiction of facts concerning the customs of the times. Matthew's account is presented from the view of one that knew all these customs and is addressing the Gospel that he recorded to an audience that he expected also knew of these customs. Matthew is clearly writing to a Jewish audience as evidenced by the Chronological order of the Jewish lineage in the beginning of the gospel, with the intent of convincing them that Jesus was indeed the expected Messiah. On, the other hand Luke is addressing an entirely different audience,
0 Replies
 
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Sat 9 Feb, 2008 10:52 pm
@Fatal Freedoms,
Fatal_Freedoms;53115 wrote:
Like i asked before, how do you know there is no contradictions??? All you have to go by is the bible. The bible states that the bible is true. In the real world that doesn't work, self-proclamation of truth doesn't work.

Your faith lies not in the bible but the men who wrote it. How do you know the writters where inspired by god? because they said they were? Sorry but you're gonna have to do better than that.

No contradictions ehh?

How about these?




-------------------------
1) How many generations were there between Abraham to David? Matthew 1:17 lists fourteen generations. Matthew 1:2 lists thirteen generations.

2) Is Paul lying? In Acts 20:35 Paul told people "to remember the words of the Lord Jesus, how he said, 'It is more blessed to give than to receive.'" Since Jesus never made such a biblical statement, isn’t Paul guilty of deception?

3) When did the leper become not a leper? (Matthew 8:13 & 8:14) Jesus healed the leper before visiting the house. (Mark 1:29-30 & 1:40-42) Jesus healed the leper after visiting Simon Peter’s house.

4) Who approached Jesus? (Matthew 8:5-7) The Centurion approached Jesus, beseeching help for a sick servant. (Luke 7:3 & 7:6-7) The Centurion did not approach Jesus. He sent friends and elders of the Jews.

5) Was she dead or just dying? (Matthew 9:18) He asked for help, saying his daughter was already dead. (Luke 8:41-42) Jairus approached Jesus for help, because his daughter was dying.

6) Just what did Jesus instruct them to take? (Matthew 10:10) Jesus instructed them not to take a staff, not to wear sandals. (Mark 6:8-9) Jesus instructed his disciples to wear sandals and take a staff on their journey.

7) When did John find out Jesus was the Messiah? (Matthew 11:2-3) While imprisoned. John the Baptist sent followers to Jesus to inquire if Jesus was the messiah. (Luke 7:18-22) While imprisoned. John the Baptist sent followers to Jesus to inquire if Jesus was the Messiah. (John 1 :29-34,36) John already knew Jesus was the Messiah.

8) Who made the request? (Matthew 20:20-21) Their mother requested that James and John, Zebedee’s children, should sit beside Jesus in his Kingdom. (Mark 10:35-37) James and John, Zebedee’s children, requested that they should sit beside Jesus in his Kingdom.

9) What animals were brought to Jesus? (Matthew 21:2-7) two of the disciples brought Jesus an ass and a colt from the village of Bethphage. (Mark 11:2-7) They brought him only a colt.

10) When did the fig tree hear of its doom? (Matthew 21:17-19) Jesus cursed the fig tree after purging the temple. (Mark 11:14-15 & 20) He cursed it before the purging.

11) When did the fig tree keel? (Matthew 21:9) The fig tree withered immediately. and the disciples registered surprise then and there. (Mark 11:12-14 & 20) The morning after Jesus cursed the fig tree, the disciples noticed it had withered and expressed astonishment.

12) Was John the Baptist Elias? "This is Elias which was to come." Matthew 11:14 "And they asked him, what then? Art thou Elias? And he said I am not." John l:21

13) Who was the father of Joseph? Matthew 1:16 The father of Joseph was Jacob. Luke 3 :23 The father of Joseph was Heli. Christians shall try to LIE and tell you that one is the heritage of Mary and the other Joseph. This is utter bull****, the Hebrew and Greek cultures NEVER regarded the bloodline of the mother. They were patriarchal societies which only concerned themselves with paternal lineage.

14) How many generations were there from the Babylon captivity to Christ? Matthew 1:17 Fourteen generations, Matthew 1:12-16 Thirteen generations.

15) Matthew 2:15, 19 & 21-23 The infant Christ was taken into Egypt. Luke 2:22 & 39 The infant Christ was NOT taken to Egypt.

16) Matthew 5:1-2 Christ preached his first sermon on the mount. Luke 6:17 & 20 Christ preached his first sermon in the plain.

17) John was in prison when Jesus went into Galilee. Mark 1:14 John was not in prison when Jesus went into Galilee. John 1:43 & 3:22-24

18) What was the nationality of the woman who besought Jesus? Matthew 15:22 "And behold, a woman of Canaan came out of the same coasts, and cried unto him, Have mercy on me, 0 Lord, thou son of David; my daughter is grievously vexed with a devil." Mark 7:26 "The woman was a Greek, a Syrophenician by nation, and she besought him that he would cast forth the devil out of her daughter."

19) How many blind men besought Jesus? Matthew 20:30 Two blind men. Luke 18:35-38 Only one blind man.

20) Where did the devil take Jesus first? (Matthew 4:5-8) The Devil took Jesus first to the parapet of the temple, then to a high place to view all the Kingdoms of the world. (Luke 4:5-9) The Devil took Jesus first to a high place to view the kingdoms, then to the parapet of the temple.

21) Can one pray in public? (Matthew 6:5-6) Jesus condemned public prayer. (1 Timothy 2:8) Paul encouraged public prayer.

22) If we decide to do good works, should those works be seen? Matthew 5:16 "Let your light so shine before men that they may see your good works." 1 Peter 2:12 "Having your conversation honest among the Gentiles: that ... they may by your good works, which they shall behold, glorify God in the day of visitation." This contradicts: Matthew 6:1-4 "Take heed that ye do not your alms before men, to be seen of them…that thine alms may be in secret." Matthew 23:3-5 "Do not ye after their [Pharisees'] works ... all their works they do for to be seen of men."

23) Who did Jesus tell the Lord’s Prayer to? (Matthew 5:1, 6:9-13 & 7:28) Jesus delivered the Lord’s Prayer during the Sermon on the Mount before the multitudes. (Luke 11:1-4) He delivered it before the disciples alone, and not as part of the Sermon on the Mount.

24) When was Christ crucified? Mark 15:25 "And it was the third hour and they crucified him." John 19:14-15 "And it was the preparation of the Passover, and about the sixth hour; and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your king…Shall I crucify your king?" John 19:14-15.

25) The two thieves reviled Christ. (Matthew 27:44 & Mark 15:32) Only one of the thieves reviled Christ. Luke 23:39-40.

26) In 1 Corinthians 1:17 ("For Christ sent me [Paul] not to baptize but to preach the gospel") Paul said Jesus was wrong when he said in Matthew 28:19 "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them…" Clearly one of these people is wrong, either way, it’s a contradiction.

27) When did Satan enter Judas? Satan entered into Judas while at the supper. John 13:27 Satan entered Judas before the supper. Luke 23:3-4 & 7

28) How many women came to the sepulcher? John 20:1 Only one woman went, Mary Magdalene. Matthew 28:1 Mary Magdalene and the "other Mary" (Jesus’ mother) went.

29) Mark 16:2 It was sunrise when the two women went to the sepulcher. John 20:1 It was still dark (before sunrise) when Mary Magdalene went alone to the sepulcher.

30) There were two angels seen by the women at the sepulcher and they were standing up. Luke 24:4 There was only one angel seen and he was sitting down. Mark 28:2-5

31) How many angels were within the sepulcher? John 20:11-12 two, Mark 16:5 one.

32) The Holy Ghost bestowed at Pentecost. Acts 1:5-8 & 2:1-4 The holy Ghost bestowed before Pentecost. John 20:22

33) Where did Jesus first appear to the eleven disciples? In a room in Jerusalem. Luke 24:32-37 On a mountain in Galilee. Matthew 28:15-17

34) Where did Christ ascend from? From Mount Olivet. Acts 1:9-12 From Bethany. Luke 24:50-51

35) Can all sins be forgiven? (Acts 13:39) All sins can be forgiven. Great, I’m happy to know God is so merciful, but wait (Mark 3:29) Cursing or blaspheming the Holy Spirit is unforgivable.

36) The Elijah mystery: (Malachi 4:5) Elijah must return before the final days of the world. (Matthew 11:12-14) Jesus said that John the Baptist was Elijah. (Matthew 17:12- 13) Jesus insists that Elijah has already come, and everyone understood him to mean John the Baptist. (Mark 9:13) Jesus insists that Elijah has already come. (John 1:21) John the Baptist maintained that he was not Elijah.

37) Who purchased the potter’s field? Acts 1:18 The field was purchased by Judas. John 20:1 The potter’s field was purchased by the chief priests.

38) Paul’s attendants heard the miraculous voice and stood speechless. Acts 9:7 Paul’s attendants did not hear the voice and were prostrate. Acts 22:9 & 26:14

39) Who bought the Sepulcher? Jacob, Josh 24:32 Abraham, Acts 7:16

40) Was it lawful for the Jews to put Christ to death? "The Jews answered him, we have a law, and by our law he ought to die." John 19:7 "The Jews therefore said unto him, It is not lawful for us to put any man to death." John 18:31

41) Has anyone ascended up to heaven? Elijah went up to heaven: "And Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven." 2 Kings 2:11 "No man hath ascended up to heaven but he that came down from heaven, even the son of man." John 3:13

42) Is scripture inspired by God? "all scripture is given by inspiration of God." 2 Timothy 3:16 compared to: "But I speak this by permission and not by commandment." 1 Corinthians 7:6 "But to the rest speak I, not the Lord." 1 Corinthians 7:12 "That which I speak, I speak it not after the Lord" 2 Corinthians.


------------------
would you like more? I have about 168 more of them if you'd like....


This is really a joke and a total misunderstanding of the scripts. We shall take them one at a time and point out the "absurdity" in each, as the only thing being contradictory is the ignorance of the ones that you clearly "parroted" this secular nonsense form. Shall we get started? One at a time, the rest will fold like a building built upon the sands of deception ignorance which they constructed.

No. 1---its appears that the only contradiction is you claiming there is a contradiction. Matthew 1:17 does clearly state there are 14 generations from Abraham to David. However Matthew 1:2, only starts the process of showing the chronological order in that which is claimed in 1:17, "Abraham begat Iaac; and Isaac begat Jacob....etc. Just where is 13 generations claimed in Matt 1:2? Have you made a typo?

No. 2----Just where is the verse that says "Jesus never made such a statement"? Are you trying to claim a contradiction on facts which are not in evidence? Just how do you know that Jesus did not say this thing that "you" claim He never spoke. As I said, show me the verse that says that Christ never said such a thing, then you will have a contradiction. If not, we must go with what is written, such as, "And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world could not contain the books that should be written. Amen." (John 21:25). Things "not written" can not be concluded to contradict the things were are clearly written. Show me the book, chapter, and verse in which Jesus never said, "It is more blessed to give than to receive", and I concede to your point that He never said it. If not, moving on.

No. 3---Apparently you have your miracles confused, In the Book of Matthew 8:13-14 the context of that which is presented it that Jesus is speaking of the illness that the "CENTURIONS SERVANT" was taken sick of, "the palsy". Jesus proclaimed that the Centurions faith was such that He (Christ) did not even have to physically visit, and told the Centurions people to go on their way, and his servant was healed in the same hour (vss. 6-13). Starting in verse 14 we find Jesus coming to the house of Peter, and He saw that Peter's mother in-law laid sick with a fever. Just where is the contradiction? What you speak of are representative of two entirely different people and illnesses. The verses you claim make contradiction in Mark 1:29-30 again are speaking of Peter's Mother in-law(sick with a fever) and then in Mark 1:40-41 this is in the fact the only passages concerning the "leaper". Next.


No. 4. You speak of a contradiction, where is the contradiction? In the times of Christ in the 1st century, the practice of Metonyimy was prevalent. There is no contradiction of the truth that both Matthew and Luke are pointing to in the context of the miracle that was performed and the faith that the Centurion held being the important factor to consider when recording the fact of witnessing the miracles of the Christ. Because the intermediaries came directly to Jesus, Matthew merely considered this the same as the Centurion himself being present. His accounts states, "....there came onto Him a centurion beseeching Him." The account of Luke simply goes into more detail and presents the facts of the customs and cultures concerning how the Jewish and Gentiles cultures were different. The Roman centurion knew that the Jews did not look with favor upon any Gentile, thus the account of Luke is more detailed in pointing out this fact. There is no contradiction to the truth, only a contradiction of facts concerning the customs of the times made by the ones crying "contradiction". Matthew's account is presented from the view of one that knew all these customs and is addressing the Gospel that he recorded to an audience that he expected also knew of these customs. Matthew is clearly writing to a Jewish audience as evidenced by the Chronological order of the Jewish lineage in the beginning of the gospel, with the intent of convincing them that Jesus was indeed the expected Messiah. On, the other hand Luke is addressing an entirely different audience, as he (Luke was a companion of Paul) he indeed goes into a great more detail in presenting Jewish customs and traditions as he primarily is reaching out to gentiles. Thus the extended detail in why the centurion first meet with Jewish elders, and then sent for Jesus. Matthew assumes his audience knows that a Roman was forbidden by Jewish customs to directly approach any religious representative, and writes his account in a brief summary.

I go weary, more later. I still am yet to see any contradiction of any "truth" that is presented in the scriptures. Only the circular reasoning that questions the minute details concerning the delivery of these truths. We will continue tomorrow. Good nite, all. RD
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Sat 9 Feb, 2008 11:51 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;53130 wrote:
This is really a joke and a total misunderstanding of the scripts. We shall take them one at a time and point out the "absurdity" in each, as the only thing being contradictory is the ignorance of the ones that you clearly "parroted" this secular nonsense form. Shall we get started? One at a time, the rest will fold like a building built upon the sands of deception ignorance which they constructed.

No. 1---its appears that the only contradiction is you claiming there is a contradiction. Matthew 1:17 does clearly state there are 14 generations from Abraham to David. However Matthew 1:2, only starts the process of showing the chronological order in that which is claimed in 1:17, "Abraham begat Iaac; and Isaac begat Jacob....etc. Just where is 13 generations claimed in Matt 1:2? Have you made a typo?

No. 2----Just where is the verse that says "Jesus never made such a statement"? Are you trying to claim a contradiction on facts which are not in evidence? Just how do you know that Jesus did not say this thing that "you" claim He never spoke. As I said, show me the verse that says that Christ never said such a thing, then you will have a contradiction. If not, we must go with what is written, such as, "And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world could not contain the books that should be written. Amen." (John 21:25). Things "not written" can not be concluded to contradict the things were are clearly written. Show me the book, chapter, and verse in which Jesus never said, "It is more blessed to give than to receive", and I concede to your point that He never said it. If not, moving on.

No. 3---Apparently you have your miracles confused, In the Book of Matthew 8:13-14 the context of that which is presented it that Jesus is speaking of the illness that the "CENTURIONS SERVANT" was taken sick of, "the palsy". Jesus proclaimed that the Centurions faith was such that He (Christ) did not even have to physically visit, and told the Centurions people to go on their way, and his servant was healed in the same hour (vss. 6-13). Starting in verse 14 we find Jesus coming to the house of Peter, and He saw that Peter's mother in-law laid sick with a fever. Just where is the contradiction? What you speak of are representative of two entirely different people and illnesses. The verses you claim make contradiction in Mark 1:29-30 again are speaking of Peter's Mother in-law(sick with a fever) and then in Mark 1:40-41 this is in the fact the only passages concerning the "leaper". Next.


No. 4. You speak of a contradiction, where is the contradiction? In the times of Christ in the 1st century, the practice of Metonyimy was prevalent. There is no contradiction of the truth that both Matthew and Luke are pointing to in the context of the miracle that was performed and the faith that the Centurion held being the important factor to consider when recording the fact of witnessing the miracles of the Christ. Because the intermediaries came directly to Jesus, Matthew merely considered this the same as the Centurion himself being present. His accounts states, "....there came onto Him a centurion beseeching Him." The account of Luke simply goes into more detail and presents the facts of the customs and cultures concerning how the Jewish and Gentiles cultures were different. The Roman centurion knew that the Jews did not look with favor upon any Gentile, thus the account of Luke is more detailed in pointing out this fact. There is no contradiction to the truth, only a contradiction of facts concerning the customs of the times made by the ones crying "contradiction". Matthew's account is presented from the view of one that knew all these customs and is addressing the Gospel that he recorded to an audience that he expected also knew of these customs. Matthew is clearly writing to a Jewish audience as evidenced by the Chronological order of the Jewish lineage in the beginning of the gospel, with the intent of convincing them that Jesus was indeed the expected Messiah. On, the other hand Luke is addressing an entirely different audience, as he (Luke was a companion of Paul) he indeed goes into a great more detail in presenting Jewish customs and traditions as he primarily is reaching out to gentiles. Thus the extended detail in why the centurion first meet with Jewish elders, and then sent for Jesus. Matthew assumes his audience knows that a Roman was forbidden by Jewish customs to directly approach any religious representative, and writes his account in a brief summary.

I go weary, more later. I still am yet to see any contradiction of any "truth" that is presented in the scriptures. Only the circular reasoning that questions the minute details concerning the delivery of these truths. We will continue tomorrow. Good nite, all. RD


ah, so you are seeking to discredit all of them? Good luck with that, just remember if there is even 1 contradiction then it is all discredited as a 'holy book' because holy books cannot have any contradictions,


see if you can answer this contradiction:

"If someone slaps you on the right cheek, turn and offer him your left."
(Matt 5:38)

"just as he has injured a man, so it shall be inflicted on him."
(leviticus 24:20)
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 12:38 am
@Fatal Freedoms,
Fatal_Freedoms;53132 wrote:
ah, so you are seeking to discredit all of them? Good luck with that, just remember if there is even 1 contradiction then it is all discredited as a 'holy book' because holy books cannot have any contradictions,


see if you can answer this contradiction:

"If someone slaps you on the right cheek, turn and offer him your left."
(Matt 5:38)

"just as he has injured a man, so it shall be inflicted on him."
(leviticus 24:20)


All are to be discredited, because there are no contradictions.

There is no contradiction with Matt 5:38, and Leviticus 24:20, Jesus is speaking of the new covenant to come in Matthew, and Leviticus was in fact contained in the Old Covenant. The promises of the Old Testament were not done away with, just the laws that were contrary for the New Testament covenant to take effect, thus the perfect law of liberty simply has a different methodology in dealing with those that breach God's law, in this case, Jesus instructed us to turn the other Cheek, but we do only have two cheeks to offer. And there is nothing that states any Christian does not have the right to defend his life and property. This goes hand and hand with the ideology that we are to be slow to anger, it is not a sin to become angry, as Christ Himself demonstrated in getting angry with the money changers in the temple and this fact did not cause Him to sin, because his anger was a righteous anger with good reason, the same ideology can be implied with turning the other cheek, being slow to anger does not preclude anyone from acting in righteous defense of his life or his property.

No. 5----concerning the "sick" or "dying child". "While He spoke these things to them, behold, a ruler came and worshiped Him saying, "My daughter has just died, but come and lay Your hand on her and she will live (Matthew 9:18)

"And behold, one of the rulers of the synagogue came, Jairus by name. And when he saw Him, he fell at His feet and begged Him earneslty, saying, "My little daughter lies at the point of death. Come and lay Your hands on her, that she may be healed, and she will live. (Mark 5:22-23).

If you read further in Mark's account, you will find that while he is talking with Jesus and traveling to his house, he receives word of his daughter's death. "While He was still speaking, some came from the ruler of the synagogue's house who said, "Your daughter is dead. Why trouble the Teacher any further?" (Mark 5:35). Matthew's account is a condensation of the two events. When the man left, his daughter was near the point of death, and he feared that it might be the case. Thus, we conclude that the father thought that his daughter was so sick that by now, she must surely be dead, and the gospel of Mark clears it up by stating that a messenger was dispatched to bring news to the father while they were still in route. There is no contradiction to the truth presented, and the miracle witnessed that Christ did perform. Again, merely an attempt to look for a dot-less "i" or an un-crossed "t" to cry, "CONTRADICTION".

No. 6----concerning the directions of just what was to be taken by the disciples on their journey of spreading the truth.

Actually, if you read Matthew and Mark's accounts carefully you find that Matthew tells us that Jesus stated not to provide (acquire or purchase) staffs or sandals, yet Mark's account tells us that Jesus said to take a staff and wear their sandals. Lets consider the sandals. People commonly wore them; so we understand that Matthew's account is not saying that Jesus told the disciples to go barefooted, but that they were not to go out and purchase extra sandals in case the ones they were wearing wore out. Just as Jesus told them not to carry a spare tunic.

In the same way, notice that Mark has staff in the singular, but Matthew and Luke is in the plural. They were to take the staff they currently had, but they were not to bring spares. A staff was often used to carry bundles across the shoulder. Since everyone walked, people commonly kept a staff with them for journeys. Matthew and Luke tells us that Jesus didn't want them running out to get extra, while Mark's account states, they were to use what they had, just as they were to use the sandals they already owned.

More later, RD
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 10:42 am
@SWORD of GOD,
We move along down the list of non-contradictory "contradictions"s. No.'s 7,8,9. All can be addressed with the simple truth. Nothing can be considered a contradiction if it is "not" written and not to be found in the scriptures at all, there is no contradiction made by "omission". These accounts do not contradict one another, they only differ in the amount of detail given by each author. Because one fails to speak of small detail and another wishes to record it does not make either "contradictory". Such as whether or not the Mother is mentioned and recorded or whether one gives account of both animals they were sent after. One author simply gives a more detailed description of the "truth" which is being presented. The important part of the message is "always" recorded, such as the brother thinking they my "purchase" power in a "literal" kingdom they thought was coming, and being chastised for such thinking, thus laying the foundation of the truth that Christ's kingdom was not physical but spiritual or the facts concerning the fulfillment of Jesus riding the colt and completing the prophecy. The amount of detail in each record may be different but there's nothing that contradicts the truth of the subject matter. AGAIN, ALL THE NON-CONTRADICTORY CONTRADICTIONS ARE JUST AS ABSURD AS THE OXYMORON METHOD IN WHICH THEY ARE PRESENTED. Something that is said cannot be contradicted by something that is not said.

Next concerning the Fig tree. The Matt.21:17 account and the fact that it was mentioned after Jesus cleansed the temple of the money changers. And the Mark 11:12 account of the fig tree being cursed before the temple being cleansed do not contradict each other as far as the truth of what is being revealed, the account is given because the curse of the tree being cursed because it was non-productive simply parallels those that profess faith yet bear no fruit, thus if they do not they face the same curse. This is the truth being revealed. The chronological order in which this account is given and recorded in different orders to each other is very apparent with the authors that recorded each event. Again there in no contradiction in the truth presented, only the fact that it is recorded in a different chronological order presents the difference in how the two authors in fact looked at chronological time and recorded such.

Matthew's gospel opens with a genealogy of Jesus, thus presenting Him as one of Jewish lineage and heritage. Matthew addresses his gospel account to those of the Jewish faith. The method of tracking time by those of the Jewish faith and those of Roman or gentile lineage vary in a drastic way. The Jewish faith observes a day 6 to 6, while the Roman method of calculating time is the same as we follow it today, from 12 to 12, thus often times the chronological order of what is being recorded can and does vary from one gospel account to the other. As mentioned Matthew and Mark record the same events and the same truth but each places what they are telling in the scripts in a different order. Marks gospel account contains few references to Old Testament teachings. When there are references to Hebrew words or Jewish customs, such as that mentioned with the custom of money changers or traders gathering at the temple, Mark attempts to explain them as if his audience would not necessarily understand them on their own.

The historian Papias, writing around 140 A.D. stated this concerning Mark's account of the gospels. "Mark, having become Peter's interpreter, wrote accurately all that he remembered, though he did not record in order that which was either said or done by Christ. For he neither heard the Lord nor followed Him; but attached himself to Peter who used to frame his teaching to meet the immediate wants of his hearers, and not as making a connected narrative of the Lord's discourses. So Mark, committed no error as he wrote down some particulars, as to omit any of the facts that he heard and recorded as was his duty as translator, but observed time as different than those he labored for.

As a reference for this very fact one can look at what the Apostle Peter had to say in 1 Peter 5:13, as he(Peter) talks about having the facts of his life recorded for later generations.

Again there is no contradiction of any truth, only the chronological order of time and how those of different cultures observe such. As demonstrated by the record of the other gospels concerning this same time period. John 12:1 tells us that six days before the passover, He(Christ) came to Bethany. Translating this into modern terms is more difficult than it first might appear because two different systems of chronological time are used. We follow the Roman style of counting a day from midnight to midnight. The Jews counted a day from sundown to sundown 6 to 6 instead of 12 to 12, thus one may have the over lapping of chronological days, or that which is considered one day by one author may in fact be considered another day by the others. John appears to have used the Jewish system. If passover was on the Sabbath day (sundown Friday to sundown Saturday) then six days before would place Jesus' arrival on the prior first day of the week of the week (between sundown Saturday to sundown Sunday). It appears he arrived in the evening because he had supper with Martha, Mary and Lazarus. The Next day (Sunday) was the triumphal entry--John 12:12. Mark 11:11-12 Mentioned that Jesus didn't stay long and returned to Bethany the next day (Monday), this was when the fig tree was cursed Mark 11:13-14 And the temple was cleansed. The following day, the fig tree withered--Mark 11:19-20.

Mark and Matthew both mention that the next series of events occur two days before the passover. Most people assume that the passover was on the Sabbath Day, or Saturday. Thus we indeed do have a gap of one day ( Wednesday were nothing is recorded). The Passover is always eaten on the fourteenth day of the first month, just after sundown--Leviticus 23:5 The last supper was eaten on the day of preparation Mark 14:12, also Matthew 26:17, and Luke 22:7, thus on the thirteenth of the month. Which day of the week Passover fall varies from year to year, just as it does on our calendars today. However, regardless of which day it fell on it was considered a Sabbath or special day, the same rules just as for any Saturday Sabbath apply---Exodus 12:6, Leviticus 23:6-8, thus they are called Sabbaths---Leviticus 23:24.

There is no contradiction to the truth revealed of the cursed fig tree or the fact that it was found withered. Only the chronological recorded differently due to the different customs of time records by two different authors and the way they remembered and perceived such.

More later RD
0 Replies
 
Pinochet73
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 12:45 pm
@Numpty,
C'mon, Nump. Grow a pair. You don't need to parachute with a partner strapped to your back. Get out there and do it ALONE. Skeered 'r ya? I bet.Very Happy
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 01:55 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;53135 wrote:
All are to be discredited, because there are no contradictions.

There is no contradiction with Matt 5:38, and Leviticus 24:20, Jesus is speaking of the new covenant to come in Matthew, and Leviticus was in fact contained in the Old Covenant. The promises of the Old Testament were not done away with, just the laws that were contrary for the New Testament covenant to take effect, thus the perfect law of liberty simply has a different methodology in dealing with those that breach God's law, in this case, Jesus instructed us to turn the other Cheek, but we do only have two cheeks to offer. And there is nothing that states any Christian does not have the right to defend his life and property. This goes hand and hand with the ideology that we are to be slow to anger, it is not a sin to become angry, as Christ Himself demonstrated in getting angry with the money changers in the temple and this fact did not cause Him to sin, because his anger was a righteous anger with good reason, the same ideology can be implied with turning the other cheek, being slow to anger does not preclude anyone from acting in righteous defense of his life or his property.



"new methodology"? C'mon RD you should know better than try to use that old argument. Why would you have to change methodolgy if it was perfect to begin with? A perfect being would never have to change his mind.
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 07:28 pm
@Fatal Freedoms,
Fatal_Freedoms;53155 wrote:
"new methodology"? C'mon RD you should know better than try to use that old argument. Why would you have to change methodolgy if it was perfect to begin with? A perfect being would never have to change his mind.


But it is not "I" that uses this argument but the New Testament Scripts, that tell us that even though the Old Law was perfect, it could not overcome man's imperfections of being so easily lead into temptation and breaking the Old Law. And the Scriptures further demonstrate that the Old Law was only to stay in place until the "Seed" would come, and Christ was indeed that "Seed".

Here let the scriptures themselves fill in the gaps of your ignorance. All God's law's are indeed upright and righteous, or "perfect" as you have said (Ps. 119:137-138, and 164). But, on the other hand mankind is not righteous (Romans 3:10-12). The Old Law made the world accountable for their actions. It defined Sin and proved that man "could not" be justified by the Law by itself (Romans 3:19-20). Sin is not imputed to any man if there is no Law or regulation against (Romans 5:13). But, with a Law, man has an awareness of sin and the Law itself shows how severe that sin is (Romans 7:7-13). Because man was unable to keep the Law perfectly, the Law convicted the entire world of sin. Gal. 3:21-22 tells us that the Law bound each man with his/her own sins. This binding is essential to God's overall plan. Until man could see for himself their helplessness, they could not appreciate the mercy of God--Romans 11:32. Thus, as a result the binding of the Old Law to man and his/her individual sin leads them to Christ (Gal. 3:23:25). The Old Law prepared men for the New Law by hinting at better things the shadow of change. Col. 2:16-17 indeed tells us that the Old Law was only a Shadow of the things to come in the New. Heb.20:1--It was a shadow of better things--the "reality".

The scriptures also tell us that the Old Law was for the nation of Israel...."only". (Deut. 5:2-3). That the Law made the Israelites distinct among the nations and prepared the "Gentile nations", that's "US", for the NEW LAW---Deut. 4:5-8. The Old Law was only Temporary. (Jer. 31:31-34)

Jesus stated that it would last until all was fulfilled--Matt.5:17-18. Jesus' very purpose and mission was to fulfill the Old Law---Luke 24:44. Christ was the ending of the All the Law, there would be no more--Romans 10:4.

Even though the Old Law was removed this does not mean that any of the promises was done away with or that it is now useless. The Old Law provides evidence that Jesus is the Christ--John 5:39. The Old Law indeed speaks of Christ--Luke 24:27. Thus belief in the Old gives rise to a belief in Christ--John:46-47. The Old Law also still gives us evidence of God's purpose and plans. 1 Peter 1:10-12, tells us that God revealed His purpose through the prophets, though they often did not themselves understand just what they were foretelling. Romans 3:21 tells us that righteousness from God is proven by the Old Law. The Old Law prepares people for salvation llTim.3:15-17. The Old Law provides examples in Righteousness Heb.11, Of wickedness and how to avoid such l Cor. 10:1-11. The Old Law gives us encouragement and hope Romans 15:4.

Here is an example of applying the Old Law today, even though we are not bound to its legalities. Eph. 6:4 tells us to raise our children in the nurture and admonition of the Lord, but how do we do this? From Heb. 12:9-10 we learn that discipline is involved, but what form does it take? Now we then can turn to the Old Testament with its many examples of how God has instructed us to discipline without injury. Are we thus, binding ourselves to the Old Laws? No, the instructions come from the perfect law of liberty (Christ's New Testament covenant), only the illustrations came from the experience of the Old Testament. RD
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 10:11 pm
@SWORD of GOD,
SWORD of GOD;53100 wrote:
I'm sorry but nothing new in what you posted. Same old sayings of all christian apologists which make no sense and has nothing to support it even from the distorted bible.

Now, here is something to think about:

If Jesus was God...

Then how come God needed an angel to stengthen Him !!?

"Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him (Jesus), strengthening Him." [Luke 22:43]


[Luke 22:41-43]
41 And He (Jesus) withdrew from them about a stone's throw, Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him, strengthening Him.and He knelt down and began to pray,
42saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."
43 Now an angel from heaven appeared to Him (Jesus), strengthening Him."


Angels only strengthen Prophets.


I find it interesting what both Muslims and Mormons claim about the Bible. They well know that the Bible contradicts their Holy Books, but they also claim with absolute authority to be a follow-on or conclusion to that same Bible and what is found in the scripts thereof. How do they both handle the "fact" that the Books of the Holy Bible shows indeed that their "latter" so called revelations are wrong. Why, of course they announce that there is complete agreement between the Judeo-Christian religion and their faith, but claim that the text we have today has been altered from the original. SURE, AND I SUPPOSE THE CHECK IS IN THE MAIL?

One can counter this simplistic argument by pointing out that the Bible "is not" the only ancient text in the world. That the question of the accuracy of the copies comes up in "all" these ancient texts. But we can apply tests to documents we have to see whether the claim of accuracy stands or not.

By how many copies exist? The more copies, the more comparisons we can make to find slips of the pen by those making the copies. Thus, the more copies the better.

What we find out about some of the ancient text in "factual" data.
1. The Annals of Tacitus, a Roman historian---we find just 2 copies
2. The writings of Plato, used by many humanistic material types to justify their view of the world----7 copies
3. The writings of Herodotus---8 copies
4. Thucydides, considered to be a very accurate historian---8 copies plus a very few fragments are to be found.
5. Caesar's Gallic Wars---10 copies
6. The Roman historian Livy wrote 142 books of which only 35 have survived and we have 20 copies.
7. There are many Popular classical authors that are better represented. We have hundreds of copies of Euripides, Cicero, Ovid, and Virgil.
8. The best represented source of the ancient text is Homer's Illiad, which we have some 700 copies.

What about the New Testament? We have 5,300 complete or mostly complete manuscripts. We have 13,000 fragments. There are 8,000 Latin translations of the Greek text. There are another 8,000 manuscripts in Syriac, Armenian, Ethiopic, Coptic, Gothic, Slavic, Sahidic, and Georgian.

Not enough to prove how much inspection the New Testament has undergone? A study done at the British Museum documented 89,000 quotes or allusions to the New Testament in writings of early Christian writers. And, we have over 1,800 lectionaries, which are reading lessons from early church services dating from the sixth century.

These copies were "not" all found in "one" place, this would present the possibility for someone to indeed modify the text. They come from multiple regions and from multiple time frames that make a connected effort to modify the text nearly impossible. The New Testament texts were found in Egypt, Ethiopia, Palestine, Syria, Turkey, Greece, and Italy. Also because we have numerous old translations, alterations in one language could be simply detected by comparison of other translations.

What about the Gap of time in between the original writings and the surviving copies? If indeed there were a large gap, then it is very possible for a change to be introduced early on and we would be unable to detect it. But, this is not the proven case.

1. Histories of Herodotus---The earliest copy was made 1,350 years after the original. 2. Histories of Thucydides---The earliest copy was made some 1300 years after the original. 3. Caesar;s Gallic Wars---950 years. 4. Annals of Tacitus---950 years. 5. Histories of Tacitus--750 years. 6. The Roman History of Livy--350 years after the original and the copy is only a fragment.

How about the New Testament? We have several fragments dated to 40 to 100 years after the original writings. We have manuscripts which date from 300 to 400 years after the original. Some translations are older. Most, though, are from the 300's and later. The quotes and allusions in the early Christian writers date from 95AD to the early 400's. Most come from the second and third century.

And the proven percent of variation in some of the ancient texts? Homer's Illiad, which we have 700 ancient copies show a 5% variation in the text, or mistakes or changes from the original, most of the others fall within this range. What about the New Testament? Less than a 1/2% is in question. Most of these are minor spelling differences or slight disputed variations in their margins.

In the words of Sir Frederick Kenyon, a noted authority on such matters, "No fundamental doctrine of the Christian faith rests on disputed reading....It cannot be too strongly asserted that in substance the text of the Bible is certain; especially is the case with the New Testament."

Also consider other notable historians, such as Josephus, who was commissioned to write a history of the Jews for Rome.

A direct quote, "Now, some of the Jews thought that the destruction of Herod's army came from God, and that very justly, as a punishment of what he did against John(the baptist), that was called the Baptist; for Herod slew him, who was just a man and commanded the Jews to exercise virtue, both as to righteousness towards one another, and piety towards God, as so to come to baptism {Antiquities, 18:5:2} "Now, there was about this time, Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man, for he was a doer of wonderful works, a teacher of such men as receive the truth with pleasure. He drew over to him both many of the Jews, and many of the Gentiles. He was the Christ; and when Pilate, at the suggestion of the principle men amongst us, had condemned him to the cross, those that loved him at the first did not forsake him, for he appeared to them alive again the third day, as the divine prophets had foretold and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning him; and the tribe of Christians, so named from him, are not extinct at this day. {Antiquities, 18:3:3)

Caius Cornelius Tacitus, was a Roman who become consul in 97 AD. He hated the Christians, but he does say these things. 1. Christ was the founder of a sect of Christians. 2. Christ was put to death as a criminal. 3. He was executed by Pontius Pilate. 4. Tiberius was emperor of Rome. 5. Jesus was born in the reign of Augustus. 6. This "pernicious superstition" was checked for a time by the death of its founder. 7. It broke out again and spread not only over Judea but reached the city of Rome. 8. Christians were persecuted in Rome under Nero. 9. Vast numbers were discovered and condemned being accused of burning the city and because of the "hatred" for mankind. 9. They were hated as the offscourings of the earth and the filth of all things. 10. They were destroyed gratify the cruelty of one man.


Thus we conclude as does these quotes, "The evidence for our New Testament writings is ever so much greater than the evidence for many writings of classical authors, the authenticity of which no one dreams of questioning. And if the New Testament were a collection of secular writings, their authenticity would generally be as beyond all doubt. {F. F. Bruce}

"After trying to shatter the historicity and validity of the Scriptures, I came to the conclusion that they are historically trustworthy. If one discards the Bible as being unreliable, then he must discard almost all literature of antiquity. One problem I constantly face is the desire on the part of many to apply one standard to secular literature, and another to the Bible. One needs to apply the same test, whether the literature under investigation is secular or religious. Having done this, I believe one can hold the Scriptures in his hand and say, "The Bible is trustworthy and historically reliable." {Josh McDowell}
SWORD of GOD
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 11:03 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
[SIZE="3"]The Amazing Biblical Cure for Hemorrohids ![/SIZE]


"Wherefore ye shall make images of your emerods, and images of your mice that mar the land; and ye shall give glory unto the God of Israel: peradventure he will lighten his hand from off you, and from off your gods, and from off your land."
[1 Samuel 6:5] KJV

Emerods = A disease, probably some bad form of hemorrhoidal tumors Bible Dictionary: Emerods
SWORD of GOD
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 11:22 pm
@SWORD of GOD,
[SIZE="3"]The Amazing Bible is More Libral Than You Think ![/SIZE]


According the distorted New Testament, the prostitutes will get into the Kingdom of God before anyone else !!!!


"Which of the two did the will of his father?" They said, "The first." Jesus said to them, "Truly I say to you that the tax collectors and prostitutes will get into the kingdom of God before you." [Matthew 21:31]
SWORD of GOD
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Feb, 2008 11:30 pm
@SWORD of GOD,
[SIZE="3"]Only in The Amazing Bible, Mothers Eat Their Children ![/SIZE]


"So we boiled my son, and did eat him: and I said unto her on the next day, Give thy son, that we may eat him: and she hath hid her son."
[2 Kings-6:29] KJV
0 Replies
 
billcompugeek
 
  1  
Reply Mon 11 Feb, 2008 11:28 am
@SWORD of GOD,
"Clothed in a vesture dipped in blood," signifies the Word in the letter, to which violence has been offered.
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Mon 11 Feb, 2008 09:01 pm
@billcompugeek,
WHERE IS THE WISE? WHERE IS THE SCRIBE? WHERE IS THE "DISPUTER" OF THIS WORLD? HATH NOT GOD MADE "FOOLISH" THE "wisdom" of this "WORLD"? (1 Corinthians 1:20). My last post Red Devil
SWORD of GOD
 
  1  
Reply Mon 11 Feb, 2008 09:29 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;53272 wrote:
WHERE IS THE WISE? WHERE IS THE SCRIBE? WHERE IS THE "DISPUTER" OF THIS WORLD? HATH NOT GOD MADE "FOOLISH" THE "wisdom" of this "WORLD"? (1 Corinthians 1:20). My last post Red Devil


According to your distorted Bible, there is NO WISE among you !!


"For vain men would be wise, though man be born like a wild ass's colt." [Job 11:12].
billcompugeek
 
  1  
Reply Tue 12 Feb, 2008 07:10 am
@SWORD of GOD,
Swedenborg states "a perception of the sphere of falsity from evil that flows forth from hell has often been granted me. It was like a perpetual effort to destroy all that is good and true, combined with anger and a kind of fury at not being able to do so, especially an effort to annihilate and destroy the Divine of the Lord, and this because all good and truth are from Him."
 

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