If Jesus was God ...

If Thomas said that Jesus is his Lord and his God, that's good enought for me.

Was Jesus the first (and only) crucified SAVIOR (as claimed by christians)!?

See this historical document stating that there were 16 crucified SAVIORS before Jesus!

Pagans' saviors :Historical Documents: Kersey Graves: The World's Sixteen Crucified Saviors: Chapter 16: Sixteen Saviors Crucified

That is a big contradiction to what Paul said in 1 Cor 8.5-6....

How can Jesus (peace be upon him) be God when he prayed to the ONE TRUE God with loud crying and tears to save him from death!!!

"In the days of His flesh, He offered up both prayers and supplications with loud crying and tears to the One able to save Him from death, and He was heard because of His piety" [Hebrews 5:7]

And indeed God allmighty heard Jesus's supplications and crying and saved his messenger, Jesus (peace be upon him) from death. This is in agreement with what Allah says in the Quran:

"And because of their saying (in boast), "We killed Messiah 'Isa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), the Messenger of Allah," - but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but the resemblance of 'Isa (Jesus) was put over another man (and they killed that man), and those who differ therein are full of doubts. They have no (certain) knowledge, they follow nothing but conjecture. For surely; they killed him not (i.e. 'Isa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary) (peace be upon them)). But Allah raised him ('Isa (Jesus)) up (with his body and soul) unto Himself (and he (peace be upon him) is in the heavens). And Allah is Ever All-Powerful, All-Wise." [Quran 4: 157-158]

No there is no contradiction, because the Lord is God, and God is the Lord.
So Thomas spoke correctly.
In Psalm 18:31 it asks the question. For who is God, except the Lord?
And in 1 Kings 18:39 it states. The Lord, He is God!
The Bible only appears to have counterdictions in it when your doctrine is wrong. If your doctrine is correct, then both you and the Bible will be in harmony.

The LORD in the old testament when you look at the original manuscript is spelled YWH but only translated LORD in the Bible because of the holiness of the name, the Jews translated it LORD instead. This is the name given by God to Moises. While Jesus is called Lord or Master..There is a big difference between the LORD of the old testament and the Lord Jesus...

Well if there is a big difference, why do we have the Lord of the Old Testament saying He made all things alone and by Himself? And why do we have the New Testament telling us Jesus made all things and apart from Jesus not one thing was made? So who made all things? Was it Jesus, or the Lord of the Old Testament?

You are now corrupting the Bible... The Bible said that 'all things were made through Him' not 'Jesus made all things'. It is only through Him.... You are like ignorant and unstable as Peter said in 2Peter3.15-16 twisting the scriptures.

John 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not.

The world was made by Jesus. I not twisting anything, I'm agreeing with Scripture. And John 1:10 tells you that (the world was made by Jesus.)

Here is exactly what the Bible said in John 1.10 says 'HE WAS IN THE WORLD AND THE WORLD WAS MADE THROUGH HIM YET THE WORLd KNEW HIM NOT...' It is very clear that the world was made through Him not 'the world was made by Him'... Peter is correct when he said that those who twisted the scriptures are ignorant and unstable.

Well that might be what your new revised transaltion says, but my old King James Bible states "and the world was made by Him" So even if it was as yours reads, the meaning would still be the same. Jesus made the world. So answer me this one question. When the Father tells us in the Old Testament that He made the world alone and by Himself, was that a true statement? Or did the Father have Jesus help Him make the world? Looking forward for your answer.

Jesus the Christ was and is God, much as I am my fathers son, he is the Son of God with all the characteristics of such. The Christ had a duality to his mission of life, to be both the Son of God and the Son of Man. For by on man sin entered into the world (Adam), and through the obedience of one shall one man (Christ) justify all men, (Romans 5:12-21). He is God because he was born of the Holy Spirit(Matt.1:20) and he had the Spirit without measure (John 3:34) thus he had all the power of God and in fact was God in the flesh.

Jesus was the "WORD" and was with God in the beginning of creation (John:1-14). (Genesis 1:26) clearly shows that God was not alone in the creation of man as God says, "Let US make man in OUR likeness." The "our" cannot be angles as the angles worshiped the Christ as God(Hebrews 1:6), and we know that angles do not worship mere man (Acts 10:25-26).

The Christ experienced humanity due to his "fleshly" birth (Matt:18-25) yet maintained his deity because he was conceived of the Holy Spirit (Matt 1:20). The apostle Paul when writing about the fleshly nature of Jesus affirmed, "For in Him(Jesus) dwelleth ALL THE FULLNESS OF THE GODHEAD BODILY" (Col2:9). When He was born he had the special title "SON OF GOD" (Heb 1:3-4), thus he indeed was superior to the angles as they worshiped him as the Son (Heb 1:6). Jesus Himself acknowledged his position as the Son of God (John 10:29,36). The Jews thought it blasphemy to make claims to such "......because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God" (John 10:33). Thus the scriptures describe Jesus the Christ as both concurrently both man and God.

The Christ was also human, thus so for a reason. In order for the old testament laws that were against mankind ever gaining salvation without walking a perfect sinless life, to be fulfilled and done away with, first there had to actually be ONE that did indeed walk a perfect sinless life. And to this day Jesus is the only man to ever walk the earth without committing a sin, and it took God in the flesh to accomplish this feat and bring about the New Covenant of Grace between man and God the New Testament of Christ. God loved mankind so much that he had to come to earth and experience that which he had placed before man, LIFE actual with its many emotions and pains. The Christ experienced them all. Temptation(Heb 4:15). Pain (I Peter 3:18, John 18:1-34). Hunger(Matt 4:2). Sorrow(John 11:35) and even anger when he challenged the money changers. And ultimately death. All without making the first sin against man or God. It indeed has taken God in the flesh to accomplish such a feat. RD

This is a big contradiction in 1Cor8.5-6 wherein Paul said there is only one God the Father.... How can Jesus be equal to the Father wherein Jesus said that the Father is greater than him?

This is a big contradiction in 1Cor8.5-6 wherein Paul said there is only one God the Father.... How can Jesus be equal to the Father wherein Jesus said that the Father is greater than him?

Where is the contradiction? Jesus the Christ never said nor made claim to being God the Father, but the Son of God who had the Spirit of God without measure (John 3:34). Jesus did say that if you had seen Him that you had also seen the Father, thus making claims to being equal and a part of the Godhead as he said, ".......he that has seen me hath seen the Father, and how sayest thou then, show us the Father? Believest thou not that I am IN the Father and the Father IN Me? The words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that Dwelleth in Me( via the Spirit), he doeth the works (miracles)."(John 14:9-10).

The concept of there being 3 distinct yet equal parts of the Godhead is greatly misunderstood by many yet is clearly explained in great detail in scripture. The word "Godhead" is mentioned 3 times in the scriptures (Acts 17:29, Rom1:20,Col2:9). There in fact are 2 different Greek words translated Godhead in these scriptures, Theiotes and Theotes. My Greek translator edition(Thayers Greek-English Lexicon) on pg. 285 says "theiotes" means divintity while "theiotes" is described as being the attributes of God or the personality of God.

The Godhead consists of 3 entities. The term God(divinity) is applied to Father in scriptures (Romans 1:7), the Son in (Hebrews 1:8) and the Holy Spirit (Acts 5:3-4). There are 3 entities that comprise or makeup the Godhead (the state of being God), they all are one in their nature, purpose, and thinking (John 14:8-11). The term Gods, as being plural is never used in scripture when referring to either of the 3. In fact any time that God/s is used in its plurality it is always used in describing false worship of idols or pagan practices of Pantheon(temple were many gods are worshiped), such as mentioned in (Ex.12:12). The scriptures clearly and unmistakably present 3 separate and distinct entities or personalities of God, but they are always addressed in the singular as ONE. (2Cor.13:14, Eph.4:4-6,Matt3:13-17). Thus the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are co-existent, co-eternal, and co-equal.

When the Word(Logos/translation) became flesh, he assumed the position of Son (John 3:16). The incarnation is mentioned in detail when comparing Jesus as the Word in (John 1:1-11). Jesus (the Word) existed at the beginning and did the actual creating of all things which are created (Col.1:16), in fact Jesus said, "......Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58). The verb "I am" indicates deity or eternal.....thus he said, "he that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (Jn.14:9).

The Holy Spirit was present at the time of creation also (Genesis 1:2). It seems that the role of the Spirit of God is that of creating order and communicating Gods will in the physical world (Gen 1:1-2,John 14-16). The Spirit is presented as on the same level and equality as Jesus as the translation for spirit(allos) actually means another of the same sort or same as (John 14:16).

One might look at the Godhead like a triangle with 3 distinct and equal sides yet making up One geometrical shape with one purpose......ONE GOD. RD

I did not question the holiness of Jesus Christ. In fact I believed He is in the form of God before he was made man, in Phil 2.6 says '..WHO THOU IN THE FORM OF GOD DID NOT COUNT EQUALITY WITH GOD'. I am telling that Jesus was not called God the Son in the Bible. There is only one God the Father saith Paul but God the Son was not mentioned in the Bible. Or do you mean to say that Jesus the Son of God is the same as God the Son?

God head consist of 3 entities is not true. This is like saying there are 3 persons in 1 God or Trinity.... There is no trinity nor 3 entities mentioned in the Bible.

'..show us the Father..' And Jesus said "he that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (Jn.14:9). Why then did Jesus replied like this? Because He can not show the Father to them because no one have seen the Father at any time and live, so it is not possible for Jesus to show the Father. But because Jesus has the attributes of God and the image and likeness of God, Jesus said he that hath seen me hath seen the Father. Jesus 'reflects the glory of God' in Hebrew 1.3..

Jesus Christ said in John 17.3 '...and this eternal life that they may know thee the only true God...' The only true God is the Father according to Jesus our Lord...

King James translation was revised due to many translation errors. If you stick to your old King James version then you are in error.

You said 'When the Father tells us in the Old Testament that He made the world alone and by Himself, was that a true statement? Or did the Father have Jesus help Him make the world? Looking forward for your answer.' This is my answer - God made all things..... He does not need any help... He can not be God if He needs help....