Is this sentence correct without the verbs ?

No, the object of the verb should follow the verb. Ask is the verb, the object of the verb is "him". This is correct:

I asked him a question.

Welcome to able2know.

In the first place, one asks a question of someone, not "to" someone. By the way, this can be avoided by writing: "I asked him a question . . . "

In common speech, it would be acceptable to omit the auxiliary verb. It might be argued that you need the auxiliary because the question is described as being uncomfortable to him in the past tense, as in "I had asked a question of him which was a bit uncomfortable"--but i'd say that one would only give consideration to that in formal, written English.

That was not the question this member was asking. Furthermore, to write "I asked of him a question . . . " still has the object following the verb.

Try this:
"I asked a question, which made him a bit uncomfortable."

Hey guys, this member is asking if he needs to use the auxiliary verb "to have" in this sentence.

How so? He asked if the sentence is correct without putting it in past perfect tense and I answered that it was not.

Whether he should use past perfect or simple past (and this depends on context we don't have) is one thing, but either way his sentence is not correct and that is the question he actually asked.



Sure, but that wasn't the sentence in question so your point is lost on me.

This is like the Twilight Zone here . . . you answered him as though he had asked about the relationship between the verb and the object:



You didn't say anything about the tense of the verb.

Yeah, but the sentence is wrong regardless of tense, for the reason I explained.

In any case, I think you covered the tense part well enough so I'm off to greener pastures.

Sure . . . i understand . . . why admit you were wrong if you don't have to . . .

It isn't clear to me that I was though. I just don't like bickering on ESL questions so I don't feel like defending it any further. I think that the question has been answered and intend to move on.

bye

The auxiliary verb is NOT "to have". The auxiliary verb is have and the OP asked whether 'has/have/had' have to be used.

What Robert probably was getting at was that the object 'him' should be after the verb, which was something you yourself noted, Set.

And Robert didn't write 'of him'. His was,

I asked him a question.



Nonsense, pure unadulterated nonsense. This has nothing at all to do with "common speech". Nor does it mean that you "need" had "because the question is described as being uncomfortable to him in the past tense".

Of course it's in the past tense. Once asked, it can't be anywhere else.

The speaker could have used the past perfect aspect "had asked", the present perfect aspect "have asked", or the simple past "asked". The verb 'has' is not an optional auxiliary in this case.

The choice of which to use would have to do with meaning/with semantic intent.

Let's put aside the "to him" issue for now. I would say that for me 'ask of someone' is the norm but it appears that 'ask to someone' is very common.

"I asked him a question which was a bit uncomfortable"

The difference between the present perfect and the simple past is one of formality/current relevance-importance/repeated action/dialect difference.

The difference between the past perfect and the simple past is one of formality/emphasis/possible dialect difference/... .