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Proof of nonexistence of free will

 
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Mon 7 Jun, 2010 08:32 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
A brain that can think with the help of a brain pacemaker is alive; a brain that is so damaged it's genuinely dead can no longer work, even with a pacemaker.

I should expand this sentence and add some semantic rigor. Four points:
  1. I agree that in principle, it is possible to build a device of the kind you describe. I will call it a brain-pacemaker. By feeding external electronic stimuli to damaged brains, this device could restore the signal patterns that their neurons would send and receive if the brain weren't damaged. Although the analogy with heart pacemakers may not be entirely exact physiologically, it's close enough for philosophical purposes.

  2. As heart-pacemakers don't work on every heart, brain pacemakers wouldn't work on every brain. For example, no pacemaker could restore healthy-brain signal patterns in a corpse that had rotted at room temparature for a year. Some damaged brains fulfil the hardware requirements for the signals associated with thought, some don't. To ensure consistency in our thinking about them, we must distinguish between different levels of brain damage.

  3. Any brain that's intact enough that a pacemaker could fully restore its neuronal signals, could also think. But it wouldn't be considered dead by neurophysiologists, or indeed by the law. That's because medical textbooks and statutes both define brain death as an irreversible loss of brain function. Yet our pacemaker, by our assumption, would reverse loss of brain function.

  4. When a brain is damaged enough that neurophysiologists and judges would consider it dead, no plausible pacemaker could make it think again. But by the same token, no plausible pacemaker could restore healthy-brain neuronal signals, either. Both impossibilities independently follow from your assumption of brain death, meaning that the loss of brain function is irreversible.
Your thought experiment, then, fails produce a paradox for either level of brain damage.
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 12:19 am
@Thomas,
Thomas, the "paradox" to which Joe refers is about "words defining words", not about problems of psycho-physical parallelism. However since you are interested in the latter issue you need to consider the following points.

1. Even if we agree that "brain functioning" is necessary for "thought processes" it does not mean it sufficient for such processes.

2. Whatever "brain functioning" is, we cannot assume it is predominantly mechanistic/deterministic in the sense of electrical circuitry. (google Hameroff and Penrose for concepts of quantum functioning in neurones)

3. Determinism is attractive for epistemological reasons because it panders to the human cognitive motivation to "predict and control". But as Capra (et al) have pointed out, such motivation may not be the only arbiter of what constitutes a "satisfactory explanation".
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 12:45 am
@Thomas,
(NB More specifically...the "paradox" is about whether the concept of paradigms(Kuhn) or epistemes(Foucault) is merely just another paradigm or episteme)
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 06:52 am
@fresco,
fresco wrote:
1. Even if we agree that "brain functioning" is necessary for "thought processes" it does not mean it sufficient for such processes.

That's true, you cannot assume it. But has anybody ever observed something about a thought process that cannot, in principle, be explained in terms of brain function?

fresco wrote:
2. Whatever "brain functioning" is, we cannot assume it is predominantly mechanistic/deterministic in the sense of electrical circuitry. (google Hameroff and Penrose for concepts of quantum functioning in neurones)

That's true, but if you allow for non-determinism on the physical side of consciousness, that makes it easier to account for non-determinism on the psychological side of it. I didn't want to make the problem needlessly easier.

fresco wrote:
3. Determinism is attractive for epistemological reasons because it panders to the human cognitive motivation to "predict and control". But as Capra (et al) have pointed out, such motivation may not be the only arbiter of what constitutes a "satisfactory explanation".

Sorry if I'm being rude, but you're missing my point twice over: a) I don't have a problem with indeterminism. I just don't think it's necessary to explain free will. b) Predicting and controlling is not just psychologically important for us. It is also an important test that an explanation actually explains something rather than just restating the problem in different words. Nevertheless, just out of curiosity: What other arbiters of what a satisfactory explanation is does Capra suggest?
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 06:56 am
@fresco,
fresco wrote:
(NB More specifically...the "paradox" is about whether the concept of paradigms(Kuhn) or epistemes(Foucault) is merely just another paradigm or episteme)

I'm disappointed that the problem you guys were discussing was so shallow. There's nothing philosophically interesting in the insight that the concept of paradigms is itself a paradigm. Of course it is. But this observation has about as much philosophical meat on it as the insight that "word" is itself a word. Self-references happen.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 08:16 am
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:

joefromchicago wrote:

That's not the paradox.

What, if anything, is the paradox?

Fresco identified it more-or-less correctly. As for whether it is philosophically shallow, I'll leave that to the people whose epistemological positions depend upon being outside the paradigm/discourse/episteme for their validity.

Thomas wrote:
With Garner's warning in mind, I find that your thinking-corpse "paradox" is not a paradox. It's a rare instance of question-begging on your part, in that your thought experiment assumes the paradox it alleges to reveal. On the one hand, you assume that the brain in question is dead. On the other hand, you assume the brain can be made to think again"much as, I imagine, a heart can be made to beat again with the help of a pacemaker.

On the contrary, I don't assume that the brain can be made to think again. That's the whole point of the thought experiment. I'm surprised you missed that.

Thomas wrote:
Tbese assumptions are inconsistent under the canonical definition of brain-death, which requires the irreversible loss of all brain fuction. A brain that can think with the help of a brain pacemaker is alive; a brain that is so damaged it's genuinely dead can no longer work, even with a pacemaker.

Those are merely empirical objections that have little place in a hypothetical situation. After all, Galvani experimented with a severed frog's leg. It was just as "dead" as a corpse's brain. And yet, to quote Galileo, "epur si muove."
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 08:35 am
@Thomas,
Capra, citing Maturna advocates a "systems theory" approach in which any function like "thinking" has to have "meaning" in terms of "sustainability of the organism". This teleological approach, which at the macro-level amounts to the "Gaia hypothesis", is ridiculed by those mainstream scientists who cannot see beyond prediction and control.

This systems paradigm is significant to your question about the observation of thought processes. Observation is active not passive and the definition of "data" is relative to some working hypothesis. According to Maturna, there is nothing significantly different about "thought" with respect to other "cognitive processes" and ....here's the crunch line..... "cognition" is another name for the general life process ! In other words he starts with a definition of "life" as a self sustaining system (autpoiesis) and all explanation is related to that system. Brains are no big deal except in terms of complexity of subservience to the system ! Indeed Maturna gives examples of other bodily functioning equally complex which could be deemed as exhibiting "wilful behaviour" in normal parlance. (See Capra "The Web of Life")
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 08:52 am
@fresco,
I should perhaps have expanded the Gaia reference to say that systems are "nested" and therefore some aspects of "organic systems" can be deemed to serve "social systems". Taking this speculative line it may be that what we call "thought" has a "social field component" extrinsic to a particular brain. ( google e.g. David Peat on the implications of "Non-locality" findings in physics)
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 11:04 am
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
On the contrary, I don't assume that the brain can be made to think again. That's the whole point of the thought experiment. I'm surprised you missed that.

I had a feeling that the way I phrased it would lead to misunderstandings. Hence the follow-up in my next post.

You assert that a brain pacemaker couldn't make a dead brain think again, but assume that it could make a dead brain carry the signals associated with thought in live brain. My answer is that you're not going to find a brain that's dead enough for the former, yet alive enough for the latter.

joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
Tbese assumptions are inconsistent under the canonical definition of brain-death, which requires the irreversible loss of all brain fuction. A brain that can think with the help of a brain pacemaker is alive; a brain that is so damaged it's genuinely dead can no longer work, even with a pacemaker.

Those are merely empirical objections that have little place in a hypothetical situation.

But your hypothetical situation exerts philosophical thrust only because it could, in principle, be an observable reality. Therefore, the empirical objection that it couldn't be an observable reality, even in principle, constitutes a valid rebuttal. (Assuming the objection is true, of course"and you haven't claimed that it isn't.)

joefromchicago wrote:
After all, Galvani experimented with a severed frog's leg. It was just as "dead" as a corpse's brain. And yet, to quote Galileo, "epur si muove."

Death is a process, not a sharp line. Moreover, it's inhomogenous: Some parts of an organism die at different times than others, and than the organism itself. For example, if you were hit by a bus today and died, your hair would keep growing for a week after your brain stopped working and your heart stopped beating. When doctors describe this phenomenon to you, they will be perfectly happy to tell you that the cells causing hair growth stay alive even after the body they're in is dead.

In the same manner, Galvani's frog's legs are alive (and hence able to twitch), even though the frog they belonged to was dead, indeed sliced and diced into peaces. That doesn't change the fact that the legs were able to twitch to the extent they're alive, and unable to twitch to the extent that they"not the frog"are dead. Your thought experiment doesn't reveal a paradox. It only constructs the appearance of one by drawing sharp semantical lines onto a continuous real process, and by drawing them in a manner that's ill-adapted to the reality of the process itself.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 11:06 am
@joefromchicago,
[duplicate post removed"T.]
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 11:44 am
@fresco,
fresco wrote:
Capra, citing Maturna advocates a "systems theory" approach in which any function like "thinking" has to have "meaning" in terms of "sustainability of the organism". This teleological approach, which at the macro-level amounts to the "Gaia hypothesis", is ridiculed by those mainstream scientists who cannot see beyond prediction and control.

Although I haven't read either Capra or Maturna, I did learn a good deal about systems theory in the contexts of biophysics and electrical engineering, both of which I have professional experience in. Therefore I'm in a position to tell you two things: (1) Systems theory is very much about prediction and control"so much so that one common synonym for "systems theory" is "control theory". (2) Back in the 1990s, systems theory became an intellectual fad, causing various new-age authors to write all kinds of mumbo-jumbo, borrowing vocabulary from systems theory. But mumbo-jumbo doesn't become systems theory just because its author uses a lot of systems-theory words. In my experience, it's this mumbo-jumbo, not systems theory proper, that "mainstream scientists" are ridiculing. From your description, I suspect that Capra and Maturna deserve most of the ridicule they're getting. But I'll reserve judgment until I actually read them.

PS: Thanks for clarifying the paradox you were discussing with joefromchicago.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 12:16 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
You assert that a brain pacemaker couldn't make a dead brain think again, but assume that it could make a dead brain carry the signals associated with thought in live brain. My answer is that you're not going to find a brain that's dead enough for the former, yet alive enough for the latter.

I'm having an increasingly difficult time trying to understand the point you are attempting to make. I said nothing about a "brain pacemaker" -- that's your addition to my hypothetical. I said that the experiment was on a corpse, which I would have supposed was sufficiently dead for most purposes. If you want to argue about "levels of deadness," then come up with your own hypothetical.

Thomas wrote:
But your hypothetical situation exerts philosophical thrust only because it could, in principle, be an observable reality. Therefore, the empirical objection that it couldn't be an observable reality, even in principle, constitutes a valid rebuttal. (Assuming the objection is true, of course"and you haven't claimed that it isn't.)

Wrong. If I posit a hypothetical about a talking dog, then, for the purposes of the hypothetical, one must assume there is at least one instance of a talking dog. It is irrelevant to argue that there's no such thing as a talking dog, since the existence or non-existence of talking dogs in the real world is unrelated to the hypothetical itself. Likewise, in my hypothetical of the sentient corpse, it doesn't matter that no one has been able to map out the neurological sequence that invariably leads to a particular thought (something that hasn't been possible in real life either, but you seem to have missed that). For the purposes of the hypothetical, you have to accept that as a premise. Saying "that's not possible" isn't a valid criticism.

Thomas wrote:
Death is a process, not a sharp line. Moreover, it's inhomogenous: Some parts of an organism die at different times than others, and than the organism itself. For example, if you were hit by a bus today and died, your hair would keep growing for a week after your brain stopped working and your heart stopped beating. When doctors describe this phenomenon to you, they will be perfectly happy to tell you that the cells causing hair growth stay alive even after the body they're in is dead.

If you want to argue that it's possible to have a live brain inside of a dead corpse, then you should have no problem in concluding that the experiment I outlined in my hypothetical would lead to a sentient corpse. That wouldn't be the conclusion that I would draw, but then I just get to come up with the question, I don't get to come up with your answer.

Thomas wrote:
In the same manner, Galvani's frog's legs are alive (and hence able to twitch), even though the frog they belonged to was dead, indeed sliced and diced into peaces. That doesn't change the fact that the legs were able to twitch to the extent they're alive, and unable to twitch to the extent that they"not the frog"are dead. Your thought experiment doesn't reveal a paradox. It only constructs the appearance of one by drawing sharp semantical lines onto a continuous real process, and by drawing them in a manner that's ill-adapted to the reality of the process itself.

You must have a rather different definition of "dead" if you think that a severed frog leg is "alive" for some purposes and "dead" for others. I doubt that anyone seriously thinks the electric current administered by Galvani revivified the frog's leg.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 01:20 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
I said nothing about a "brain pacemaker" -- that's your addition to my hypothetical. I said that the experiment was on a corpse, which I would have supposed was sufficiently dead for most purposes. If you want to argue about "levels of deadness," then come up with your own hypothetical.

I'm sorry I misunderstood your hypothetical. But your correction does not affect my objection. The premise of your hypothetical is still wrong. If "sufficiently dead for most purposes" implies "brain-dead""as for legal and medical purposes it does"you are wrong in assuming that an external device of any kind could induce the electrical signals associated with thought in a live brain. "For most purposes", "dead" means "brain-dead", "brain-dead" means "irreversible loss of all brain function""and your hypothetical posits a device that reverses the loss of brain function.

joefromchicago wrote:
If I posit a hypothetical about a talking dog, then, for the purposes of the hypothetical, one must assume there is at least one instance of a talking dog.

How about a hypothetical starring a triangular pentagon? Can I rebut that by pointing out that a polygon can have three angles, even five angles, but not both? Or say the hypothetical is about mutually consensual rape: Can I rebut that by pointing out that rape is, by definition, not mutually consensual? If your answer is "no", how is my rebuttal invalid? If your answer is "yes", how are those hypotheticals different from yours, in which you reverse an irreversible loss of brain function?

joefromchicago wrote:
If you want to argue that it's possible to have a live brain inside of a dead corpse, then you should have no problem in concluding that the experiment I outlined in my hypothetical would lead to a sentient corpse. That wouldn't be the conclusion that I would draw, but then I just get to come up with the question, I don't get to come up with your answer.

I'm not sure "sentient" is the right word, as the brain may not get any sensory input from its dead body. But if brain-internal stimuli like thoughts and migraines count to you as sentiments, then yes"I have no philosophical problem with a sentient corpse. It's no more philosophically difficult to me than a corpse that needs shaving after a week in the grave.

joefromchicago wrote:
You must have a rather different definition of "dead" if you think that a severed frog leg is "alive" for some purposes and "dead" for others. I doubt that anyone seriously thinks the electric current administered by Galvani revivified the frog's leg.

That's not what I'm thinking. I'm thinking that a frog's legs can be alive even if the frog itself is dead. The frog and its legs are different entities, with different times of death. This point gets even more forceful if you count tumors as body parts. There are people who've been dead for decades"but their tumors keep surviving, even growing, in some jar on some shelf in some university's cellar. There is nothing unorthodox about live parts of dead bodies. Just find a physiologist and ask!

joefromchicago wrote:
I doubt that anyone seriously thinks the electric current administered by Galvani revivified the frog's leg.

When you talk to this physiologist, ask her if it would be correct to say that the frog's legs weren't entirely dead to begin with. I bet you 10:1 she'll say "yes".
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 01:43 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
I'm sorry I misunderstood your hypothetical. But your correction does not affect my objection that the premise of your hypothetical is wrong. If "sufficiently dead for most purposes" implies "brain-dead""as for legal and medical purposes it does" you are wrong in assuming that an electrical device of any kind could induce the electrical signals associated with thought in a live brain.

In my hypothetical it can.

Thomas wrote:
How about a hypothetical starring a triangular pentagon? Can I rebut that by pointing out that a polygon can have three angles, even five angles, but not both? Or say the hypothetical is about mutually consensual rape? Can I rebut that by pointing out that rape is, by definition, not mutually consensual? If your answer is "no", how is my rebuttal invalid? If your answer is "yes", how are those hypotheticals different from ours?

As I said before, empirical objections are not valid criticisms of a hypothetical. The examples you raise are incoherent on a definitional level. Talking dogs or sentient corpses, in contrast, are merely unlikely on an empirical level.

Thomas wrote:
You're assuming a person who is legally dead (implying, by definition, an irreversible loss of all brain function). Yet also assume that you could reverse biophysical brain function with some external device. Your hypothetical has exactly the same logical merits as the triangular-pentagon and consensual-rape hypotheticals.

You really didn't understand my hypothetical. I said nothing about reversing biophysical brain function with some external device. Indeed, the hypothetical presumes that the brain remains quite dead throughout the entire experiment. After all, the hypothetical is designed to determine how far a person will go in equating the neurological impulses that are associated with thoughts and the thoughts themselves. If it's true that the impulses and the thoughts are identical, then whenever the impulses are present, the thoughts will be present as well, and that would be true even if the brain were dead.

Thomas wrote:
I'm not sure "sentient" is the right word, as the brain may not get any sensory input from its dead body. But if brain-internal stimuli like thoughts and migraines count to you as sentiments, then yes"I have no philosophical problem with a sentient corpse. It's no more philosophically difficult to me than a corpse that needs shaving after a week in the grave.

So be it.

Thomas wrote:
That's not what I'm thinking. I'm thinking that a frog's legs can be alive even if the frog itself is dead. The frog and its legs are different entities, with different times of death. This point gets even more forceful if you count tumors as body parts. There are people who've been dead for decades"but their tumors keep surviving, even growing, in some jar on some shelf in some university's cellar. There is nothing unorthodox about live parts within dead bodies. Just find a physiologist and ask!

I doubt that a leg lives for a significant amount of time after it is severed from a body, and I don't know if Galvani experimented on freshly severed limbs or if he waited until they got good and ripe. I'm not even sure that it matters, and at this point I really don't care, since I just used Galvani's experiment as an example.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 01:57 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
I doubt that a leg lives for a significant amount of time after it is severed from a body, and I don't know if Galvani experimented on freshly severed limbs or if he waited until they got good and ripe.

For Galvani's experiment to work, the legs have to be fairly fresh. (As in hours, not days.)
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 02:17 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
The examples you raise are incoherent on a definitional level.

Your example is definitionally incoherent in the same way. "For most purposes" including medicine and law, "dead" is defined as "brain-dead", which is defined as irreversible loss of brain function. "Brain function" is defined as the signals you see in EEGs. These are also the signals your electrical device induces in the brain of your hypothetical. On a definitional level then, your hypothetical temporarily reverses an irreversable loss of brain function, which is definitionally inconsistent.

joefromchicago wrote:
After all, the hypothetical is designed to determine how far a person will go in equating the neurological impulses that are associated with thoughts and the thoughts themselves.

My answer to this question is that I will not go as far as assuming biophysical impossibilities.

You didn't ask for my opinion about the electrical device that decides when to make which of the dead brain's neurons emit which signals. But when did that ever stop me? In order to function, this device would have to include some very precise software representation of a healthy brain's hardware and its signals. Ignoring what happens with the brain itself, it is my conviction that thought would be occuring in your electrical device. Does that clarify anything you care to see clarified?
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 03:00 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
Your example is definitionally incoherent in the same way. "For most purposes" including medicine and law, "dead" is defined as "brain-dead", which is defined as irreversible loss of brain function. "Brain function" is defined as the signals you see in EEGs. These are also the signals your electrical device induces in the brain of your hypothetical. On a definitional level then, your hypothetical temporarily reverses an irreversable loss of brain function, which is definitionally inconsistent.

Again, my hypothetical doesn't say anything about brain function. The electrical device, after all, is capable of stimulating neurons in a cadaver's brain. Presumably, then, there's no need for the brain to have any functions whatsoever, since the stimulation is coming from outside the brain. The brain is inert, just as the frog's leg in Galvani's experiment was inert until an outside stimulus was applied. There's no reversal of brain function here, just as there was no reversal of "leg function" in Galvani's experiment.

Thomas wrote:
My answer to this question is that I will not go as far as assuming biophysical impossibilities.

Claiming that something "isn't possible" is the usual way that people get out of addressing difficult hypotheticals, so I understand your desire to get out of addressing this one.

Thomas wrote:
You didn't ask for my opinion about the electrical device that decides when to make which of the dead brain's neurons emit which signals. But when did that ever stop me? In order to function, this device would have to include some very precise software representation of a healthy brain's hardware and its signals. Ignoring what happens with the brain itself, it is my conviction that thought would be occuring in your electrical device. Does that clarify anything you care to see clarified?

Wait a minute. The thought is occurring inside the electrical device? Are you sure that's what you meant to say?
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 04:09 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
Again, my hypothetical doesn't say anything about brain function.

Yes it does, because it posits that the brain belongs to a person who's "dead for most purposes". For medical and legal purposes, death is defined as irreversible loss of all brain function.

joefromchicago wrote:
There's no reversal of brain function here, just as there was no reversal of "leg function" in Galvani's experiment.

It is true that in Galvani's experiment, the frog's loss of "leg function" wasn't reversed. But that's because the "leg function" was never lost in the first place. To the contrary: it was the functioning legs that lost the frog. Accordingly, when Galvani's electrodes crudely substituted for the rest of the frog, leg function wasn't restored; it continued to work as it always had. So if you insist that the brain in your hypothetical works analogously to the legs in Galvani's experiment, the allegedly-dead person's brain function wasn't lost in the first place, let alone irreversibly. By the medical and legal definition of "death", then, the brain's owner never died.

joefromchicago wrote:
Wait a minute. The thought is occurring inside the electrical device? Are you sure that's what you meant to say?

Yes I am, and yes I did. If an electrical device can simulate and drive a human brain on the level of specificity you suggest, it can think and have migraines in the same sense that humans can.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Jun, 2010 04:39 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
Claiming that something "isn't possible" is the usual way that people get out of addressing difficult hypotheticals, so I understand your desire to get out of addressing this one.

And I bet it's similarly common that intelligent, interested laymen discuss concepts that carry specific meanings in a particular field, discuss them almost-coherently-but-not-quite, and thereby irritate people who have actually studied the field. But I had it coming. I must have done much worse to you when I discussed constitutional law with you.
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Wed 9 Jun, 2010 12:23 am
@Thomas,
Thanks for your first assessment of Capra (et al). I do urge you to follow up with an open mind. The key issue is that "natural systems" have no "controller" per se unless you want to invent a God.

BTW, since you are citing your own training, I can tell you, as a former published psychologist, that what is "known" about "brain circuitry" can be written on the back of an envelope. Smile
 

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