@tanguatlay,
Quote:1. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends, has assembled on the lawn.
2. Mr. Gupta and his friends have assembled on the lawn.
Is sentence 1 correct and has the same meaning as sentence 2?
I think that this is yet another situation where "correct/not correct" are poor terms to describe what's going on here.
First to your question, Ms Tan.
Quote:Is sentence 1 correct and has the same meaning as sentence 2?
The verb 'has' does not use subject/verb inversion to mark a question form. What you've done above is create a question that is perfectly understandable,
but it's not natural. That's not the same as
correct/incorrect.
Is sentence 1 correct and
does it have the same meaning as sentence 2?
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So what is inappropriate about # 1. My guess is that it comes as the result of a direct translation. That tells us why it may have happened but that doesn't tell us why it's inappropriate, and it has nothing to do with the literal meaning of 'assemble', meaning "put individual parts together".
?? 1. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends, has assembled on the lawn.??
Is the same sentence used in the simple past, [1a, below], natural English?
1a. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends, assembled on the lawn.