@Chumly,
Not to speak for RG, but I think your questions deserve some answers.
Chumly wrote:
Hold on Newt...
Who said the land in the map definitively "belonged" to the "Palestinians"?
Nowhere in RG's post did I find the assertion that "the land in the map definitively 'belonged' to the 'Palestinians.'" Your question is a red herring.
If you're referring to the first map, it illustrates the extent of Zionist colonization up to the year 1946.
Certainly the Zionists and their abettors, the British Empire, didn't say that the land "definitively 'belonged'" to the Palestinians. I think and say it "definitively 'belonged'" to the people inhabiting that land. Judging by the tone of your interrogation I'm sure you think and say that it "definitively '
belongs'" to the Zionists. What we say, let alone think, however, stands for very little in this brouhaha.
Quote:Who exactly were these so-called "Palestinians" during the time period in question?
The Palestinians were the indigenous people who inhabited this land during the time period. The Palestinian people have origins there dating back to Canaanite, Hebrew, and post-Hebrew times. Over the ages they subscribed to various religions including the many pagan religions of the area, Judaism, Christianity and Islam.
Quote:For what exact time period are you making said assertions?
The time period, as you will plainly see indicated in the map images, covers the years between 1946 and 2000.
Quote:By what rationale do you assert the time period in question to be the apropos one?
The rationale by which the time period in question is asserted to be the apropos one was set forth by the powers that be in this conflict, namely the League of Nations in its British Mandate for Palestine and the United Nations through its General Assembly Resolution 181.