@genoves,
Joe the Jag wrote:
Why the distinction? The second amendment doesn't say "firearms," it says "arms." How can you justify a distinction given the text of the amendment?
Jope the Jag says he is a lawyer. If he is, he graduated last in his class at one of the worst law schools in the country.
Note:
Joe the Jag is, of course, in addition to being a fake lawyer( see my posts where I showed he knows Nothing about Law Schools and gives people who asked him in all innocence for help, advice that was not worth a ****, NOW gives a moron's interpretation of the second amendment.
Note what the excrementious Joe the Jag wrote:
No, I'm quite sure you don't.
Frankly, I'd be shocked if any self-styled conservative actually disagreed, in practice, with the notion that the constitution is a "living document." Perhaps there are a few cranks and crackpots out there who think that the constitution should be frozen in the late eighteenth century, but then that's why they're considered to be cranks and crackpots.
But, as a test, just ask your conservative friends the following:
--Should the definition of "arms" in the second amendment be confined solely to weapons as they existed in 1791?
--Should television and radio broadcasters enjoy the same freedoms as the "press" under the first amendment?
--Should conversations be protected from warrantless electronic eavesdropping under the fourth amendment?
--Would imposition of the death penalty for theft violate the "cruel and unusual" provisions of the eighth amendment?
In addressing these and other questions, it's simply amazing to discover just how much conservatives really believe in the "living constitution" approach to constitutional interpretation.
****************************************************************
Take Joe the Jag's first two lines. The ass sets up the question so that it conforms to his prejudices. The jerk does not know how the word "arms" has been used. Note below:
To Bear Arms
"Bearing arms," throughout the 18th century, most likely meant to serve as a soldier or to fight (including bearing arms against another man in individual self-defense). Where the term "bear arms" appears, itself, without further modifiers it did not infer a broader meaning such as hunting or the mere carrying or wearing of arms.
For example, Roger Sherman, during House consideration of a militia bill (1790) refers to bearing arms as an individual right of self-defense (against other individuals) as well as a right belonging to the states:
[C]onceived it to be the privilege of every citizen, and one of his most essential rights, to bear arms, and to resist every attack upon his liberty or property, by whomsoever made. The particular states, like private citizens, have a right to be armed, and to defend, by force of arms, their rights, when invaded.
14 Debates in the House of Representatives, ed. Linda Grand De Pauw. (Balt., Johns Hopkins Univ. Press, 1972), 92-3.
Thus the term bearing arms was understood as not referring exclusively to military service.
Although without modifying terms, as mentioned above, bearing arms probably did not refer to the mere carrying or hunting with arms.
The Second Amendment as passed by the House of Representatives read:
A well regulated militia, composed of the body of the People, being the best security of a free State, the right of the People to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed, but no one religiously scrupulous of bearing arms, shall be compelled to render military service in person. (source)
In the conscientious objector clause, "bearing arms" clearly conveys an exclusively military or fighting connotation, and thus it would seem "to bear arms" also has a military meaning. Otherwise, we are talking about different meanings associated with the same word within the same amendment. Highly improbable, especially since most of the framers were lawyers.
*******************************************************************
If Joe the Jag was really a lawyer, He would be able to rebut my post. Since he is not and is afraid of me, my post stands unrebutted.