1
   

Why is any criticism of a culture considered racist?

 
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 02:32 pm
Setanta wrote:
I don't "act" as though that were true, i assert that it is true. The only information provided by superficial appearance is the fact of that appearance itself--it cannot be stated with certainty that superficial appearance tells us anything which will be usefully predictive with regard to the future behavior of the person bearing that appearance.


It is really quite silly how you continue to deny the most fundamentally obvious facts.

I will restate my exact argument mathematically, as you don't seem to be getting it with words.

Let A be any attribute of a person
Let B be any attribute of a person.

Note that there is no requirement for A to be visually observable, and no requirement for B to be a non-superficial quality of "character." You have apparently attempted to interject these two requirements into my argument.

I assert that there exists an A and a B such that

Pr(A & B) = Pr(A)*Pr(B)

(Note that this is very different from A => B, which is how you repeatedly paraphrase my argument.)

For any A and B that satisfy this equation, A provides information about B by definition!!
0 Replies
 
Shapeless
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 03:08 pm
Quote:
Rather, it was more on the lines of "making assumptions about whether or not to trust someone based upon their immediate discernable behavior


It would be great if that were the essence of what you are saying, but it isn't. Whether you meant to or not, you've implied quite a lot more than just issues of "immediate discernible behavior." You wrote:

Quote:
By noticing the association between speaking in an annoying way and distinguishing characteristics such as race


In order to make this statement consistent with the previous one, you have to assume that race is an indication of behavior, and that's racism, pure and simple. In the milder formulation you gave here...

Quote:
I consider all characteristics of a person, including ethnicity, to all be in the category of characteristics...and therefore all valid means for distinguishment and pattern analysis.


...you innocuously moved away from behavior to the more palatable category of "characteristics." And of course behavior is a characteristic, but it's by slipping so easily between the two that you're able, for example, to ask the rhetorical question...

Quote:
So when a person tells you that they are caucasian or negro, you make no assumptions about the color of their skin?


...which doesn't address the main thrust of what people have been saying here. No one is expressing outrage that you consider "caucasian" or "negro" to be an indication of their physical characteristics. But it's your substitution (sometimes explicit but in this case tacit) of behavior with characteristics that brings you into the terrain of racism, and is what allows you to believe you are not contradicting yourself when you go on to say

Quote:
I very well do make assumptions about whether or not I will like somebody based on their ethnicity.


Assumptions of what? Characteristics of skin color? Of course that's not racist. Characteristics of behavior? That's racism. In your other attempt to formulate the matter in milder terms, you wrote...

Quote:
"I do not like people who do Y, and most of the people of X I have met do Y."


...which is indeed more palatable because it makes no mention of your attitude toward people of X that you meet in the future. This statement speaks only of people whose behavior traits you've (presumably) already verified, so yes, this statement alone is not racist. But you can't use that as a shield when you go on to say, undoubtedly with the belief that it follows quite logically, that you "very well do make assumptions about somebody based on their ethnicity." The former doesn't salvage the latter from being racist.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 03:57 pm
I'm not going to waste any more time playing games--word games or "mathematical" games--Stuh. As Shapeless points out, you continue to attempt to change the terms of the discussion to avoid the consequences of discussing your originally articulated position. That was that a person's behavior can reasonably be assumed based upon race, or any other superficial appearance. That is false, and an example of the generalized inductive falacy.

I'll give one more example, and then i'm done with this, because you seem too eager to deny that you've said what you patently have said.

Roughly 60% of the population of the Lebanon are Muslims, and almost all of the remainder are various forms of Christian. It is a reasonable statement (generalization) to say that the Lebanon is a Muslim nation (although that is a naive oversimplification which ignores strong sectarian distinctions among Muslims). However, when going from the general to the specific, it would be incorrect to assume that any particular Lebanese you encounter is Muslim. In fact, two of every five Lebanese are Christians. There is nothing wrong with making the generalization; there is something very wrong with making assumptions about individuals on such a basis, and in the example provided, will mean that you are frequently (and predictably) wrong.

Which is why the entire "pattern recognition" argument for making assumptions about the future behavior of any individual based upon superficial appearance is a bankrupt concept.

I'm done now, bye . . .
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 04:04 pm
Adios, tambien.
0 Replies
 
2PacksAday
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 04:08 pm
Yankees, are a whole different breed, so says I...so says I.
0 Replies
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 05:11 pm
Setanta wrote:
That was that a person's behavior can reasonably be assumed based upon race, or any other superficial appearance.


That was never my argument.

My original argument is faithfully represented in the above equation for anyone failing to understanding the English language as much as Setanta.
0 Replies
 
patiodog
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 05:22 pm
Quote:
I assert that there exists an A and a B such that

Pr(A & B) = Pr(A)*Pr(B)


Actually, what I've garnered from a quick glance at this thread is that this is exactly the opposite of what you originally posited.

The equation above is only true if A and B are completely independent of each other.

Your statement which appears to have started a stir was this:

Quote:
It's perfectly reasonable to assume you won't like someone based on similarity to other people you don't like


This suggests that A does in fact have some correlation with B -- that Pr(A+B)>Pr(A)*Pr(B) or Pr(A+B)<Pr(A)*Pr(B).

Even if this latter instance is in fact the case -- which it surely is across cultural lines (discounting entirely the notion of race for the time being) -- it still tells you nothing about a particular individual. Knowing that people descended from certain regions of Africa and bits of Asia are more likely than other people to carry sickle cell genes doesn't tell you if the next person from these regions you meet carries the genes or not. So, generalizations, even if there is some statistical truth to them, are of no use in individual interactions. I think Casey Stengel made a pithy observation to this effect at some point or other...
0 Replies
 
Shapeless
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 05:36 pm
stuh505 wrote:
Setanta wrote:
...a person's behavior can reasonably be assumed based upon race, or any other superficial appearance.


That was never my argument.


stuh505 wrote:
People from every ethnicity tend to look and act in similar ways. So of course we generalize about them, just as we would generalize about any group of people than can be identified.


stuh505 wrote:
Shapeless wrote:
What you're artfully glossing over is the basis on which you assume that the character traits of one person are inherent in another person. If your basis is race, then that's racism.


Oh, you don't think that's the case??
0 Replies
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 06:08 pm
patiodog wrote:
Actually, what I've garnered from a quick glance at this thread is that this is exactly the opposite of what you originally posited.


You are entirely correct, thank you for pointing out that error!

What I meant to write was:

I assert that there exists an A and a B such that
Pr(A & B) != Pr(A)*Pr(B)

Quote:
So, generalizations, even if there is some statistical truth to them, are of no use in individual interactions.


This statement seems self contradictory to me. If there is some non-zero statistical truth, then it can be of use...
0 Replies
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 06:15 pm
Shapeless,

Ok, I see what appears to be a contradiction to you.

Setanta paraphrased my argument as:
Quote:
...a person's behavior can reasonably be assumed based upon race, or any other superficial appearance.


According to this, anything such as the number of nose hairs could be used to predict a person's behavior.

Also "a person's behavior" is a rather all-inclusive statement, much more intense then what I was saying, which was that certain correlations between behavior could be established -- such as noticing that people from one area talk with a different accent.
0 Replies
 
Shapeless
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 06:40 pm
JLNobody wrote:
Has anyone yet criticized the premise of this thread? The question it raises is why criticism of a culture is considered racism. Who says that?


Gary Tomlinson, a historian of music with an anthropological bent, said something close to it in his book Renaissance Magic. One of his points is that we must show the same respect to historical figures that we do (or should) to contemporary cultures outside our own--i.e. just as we should accept the practices of other cultures as legitimate ways of life, we should accept the practices of historical epochs as legitimate ways of life. He suggests that any sort of criticism, even in the form of questions, is an attempt to impose our world view on someone else. He never uses the term "racist" to describe this; he prefers to call it "ethnocentric." Here's an illustrative passage, in which he's describing the Renaissance belief that the performance of ritualistic songs could influence the position of the stars:

Quote:
This I think we must accept almost as a matter of faith, faith in anthropological difference and in people's abilities to construct through language and deed their own worlds, unfettered by the world rules others have made. This is the place where Ficino's astrological songs succeeded in bringing about the effects his discussions of them described... Our desire to ask is... almost irresistible, "But how, precisely, did Ficino's songs work technically? How did they change the physical relationship between him and the cosmos?" We must recognize that the voicing itself of the question is an unwarranted act of translation, a forced reshaping of Ficino's world to fit the different shape of our own. Once the question is posed we have jerked Ficino's songs into our own space, into a space we control utterly... So we must not ask the question that comes automatically to our lips. It is, more than most, a coercive question."


It's not quite the same phenomenon as the one that BubbaGumbo is inquiring about in this thread, but it's pretty close. Both are founded on the belief that cultures/races can be described and criticized only within their own standards of right and wrong.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 06:41 pm
stuh505 wrote:
Setanta wrote:
That was that a person's behavior can reasonably be assumed based upon race, or any other superficial appearance.


That was never my argument.

My original argument is faithfully represented in the above equation for anyone failing to understanding the English language as much as Setanta.


Thanks to a nosey "friend," i was informed of this. You get awfully snotty with people who won't accept your unfounded and indefensible arguments, don't you?
0 Replies
 
patiodog
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 06:44 pm
Quote:
Quote:
So, generalizations, even if there is some statistical truth to them, are of no use in individual interactions.


This statement seems self contradictory to me. If there is some non-zero statistical truth, then it can be of use...


It's not.

Say you go to a doctor with a lump under your armpit. The doctor knows that 87% of the time, a mass in this location with this consistency in an individual of this age and gender is benign.

The physician still has to consider the very real possibility that the mass is malignant.

The mass, at this point in time, is either malignant or benign. You treat the individual, not the population.
0 Replies
 
littlek
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 06:54 pm
stuh505 wrote:
People from every ethnicity tend to look and act in similar ways. So of course we generalize about them, just as we would generalize about any group of people than can be identified. There's nothing wrong with that, and there's nothing wrong with not liking them. If somebody chooses not to like a group of people, say -- chinese people, or people who are in chess clubs, or short people, or fat people, or jocks...that's fine.


The above is called racism or bias

Quote:
It's perfectly reasonable to assume you won't like someone based on similarity to other people you don't like, and there's nothing wrong with making fun of those people behind their backs. Nobody likes all groups, and we all make fun of the groups of people we don't like from time to time.


I'd say that this second quote shows racism and bias, still, and would disagree as to whether there is nothing wrong with it.

Quote:
[sic] ....showing open disrespect in some way to those people to their face.


This is called discrimination and it's illegal.

Quote:
I've never witnessed racism.
impossible!
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 07:44 pm
This is the introductory post to this thread:

BubbaGumbo wrote:
Is it not possible for a culture to be backwards and immoral? I understand the importance of respecting the rituals and nuances of other cultures but some beliefs/behaviors are immoral any way you try to spin it.

Why do you have to a practicing member of a culture to pass judgement on it?

It baffles me why criticism of aspects of other cultures is so taboo.


To which Lil' Kay responed with a question:

littlek wrote:
Hey Bubba, can you throw us an example to work with?


After a few exchanges between Patiodog and Lil' Kay, BubbaGumbo answered her as follows:

BubbaGumbo wrote:
"Hey Bubba, can you throw us an example to work with?"

Sure. The other day I was discussing the continued plight of African Americans with my friends. At one point in the debate, I began putting some of the blame on the immature/regressive culture of African American youths. Specifically, the culture is extremely materialistic, mysoginistic, and violent. My friends immediately jumped on me and called me racist and ignorant which is absurd. Obviously, this is a personal anecdote but I've witnessed similar events in public venues and on TV.



I think BubbaGumbo's point is well taken, although not stated at the outset, but rather, doubtlessly to encourage discussion--presented in the form of rhetorical question (rhetorical in the sense of relating to discussion and debate, rather than predicated upon foregone conclusions).

Several posts thereafter addressed the topic intended by the author. My first contribution was to take notice of the movement in the late 1960s and early 1970s among "militant" groups (civil rights, feminist, quasi-socialist, egalitarian) to define unacceptable speech in the effort to gather everyone into a cohesive group to "fight the man." That was what i consider the birth of "politically correct" speech, which accepts no condemnation of any aspect of what can be ascribed to culture.

Others have, of course, offered opinions on the matter. I disagree with Mr. Thomlinson's thesis referred to just above by Shapeless. For example, during the first crusade, in desparate hunger, and with due contempt for Muslims, some crusaders killed and ate some of their captives. We know this because christian clerics who accompanied them recorded the event, and described their horror. This, i think, falls in the category of what BubbaGumbo refers to in writing: . . . some beliefs/behaviors are immoral any way you try to spin it.

Now, one could argue that that was exceptional behavior, indefensible because it was not commonly condoned in the society from which the crusaders came. However, there are other examples, and the Spanish come to mind. Ferdinand and Isabella successfully completed the Reconquista (the "reconquest" from the Muslims) of Spain in 1492. They immediately issued an edict expelling by a certain date all Muslims and Jews who had not converted to Christianity. They were given precious little time--a matter of weeks. Muslims who converted were known as moriscos, and Jews who converted were known as marranos--and they were all known as conversos in the aggregate. However, conversion did not end their troubles. A common practice throughout Europe at the time was to award a portion of the estate of anyone condemned and convicted of a capital offense to the person or persons who had denounced them. Despite being a common practice, it was officially condemned by the church which Ferdinand and Isabella purported to support. In Spain, the result was that the conversos were closely watched, and frequently condemned. Anyone whose conversion was considered false was condemned to death as were those who had not converted or left Spain by the deadline imposed in the original edict. Simply because the practice was encouraged in Spain does not mean that we should accept it as the cultural norm--it was in fact carried out putatively in support of the Church (the Reformation had not yet taken place, so there was only "one church" recognized in western and central Europe at the time), despite the condemnation of the practice by the Church.

Murderous Spanish zeal did not end there. In France after the Reformation, Henry IV had converted to Catholicism in order to become King, commenting that "Paris is worth a mass." Being formerly (and secretly very probably continuing to be) a Protestant, he worked carefully to preserve the peace in France without prejudice to either confessional community. He issued the Edict of Nantes guaranteeing religious tolerance (it was revoked by Louis XIV less than a century later). That he did so in Nantes is significant. The western portion of France, and in particular the seaports, was a stronghold region for the French Protestants. Even before Henry became King, his predecessors took note of this and sought to take advantage of the Protestant population without enraging the Catholic population by sending the Huguenots (the French Protestants) to overseas colonies. This being before the establishment of the colony of New France, they weren't sent to what would one day be Canada, but were sent to the West Indies. In 1562, Huguenots attempted to establish a colony at Hilton Head, but those left behind grew despondant over the winter, and returned to La Rochelle. In 1564, René Laudonniere established a colony near Cape Canaveral in what is now Florida, naming it Fort Caroline, in honor of Charles IX, then King of France. Pedro Menendez de Aviles (who founded St. Augustine) learned they were there after the French rescued two Spanish seamen from the local Indians, with whom they enjoyed cordial relations. He repaid that generosity by sending an expedition against the "heretics." We know the exact details of what happened because his subordinate, Nunez, wrote a detailed account of what he had done--he was proud of himself. His expedition was probably doomed to failure, when nature intervened. The French got word of his approach from their Indian friends, and Laudonniere put to sea with the three small ships his colony possessed. Just at that time, they were hit by a terrible storm (possibly the passage of a hurricane nearby) and scattered. Nunez and his men suffered horribly, but arrived at the fort. Even though they were outnumbered by the French left behind, Nunez bluffed them into surrender, and promptly slaughtered most, but not all of them. The three French ships were driven ashore. Nunez proceeded down the coast, and each time he encountered a French party, he would send forward a prisoner (who didn't know of the slaughter at Fort Caroline) to convince them to surrender. Then he would bind their hands, and take them off behind the sand dunes in small groups, where they would be murdered. But he was impatient and in a hurry, and he did not manage to kill all the prisoners in each party he captured. Incredibly, he let Laudonniere live, and Menendez eventually allowed the survivors to sail back to La Rochelle, where they told the story in France, and it quickly spread to the rest of Europe.

Nunez may have been proud, and Menendez may have rewarded him for his efforts, but the event was roundly condemned throughout Europe, by both Protestants and Catholics. It lead to an estrangement between the French and Spanish Kings, which probably had a great deal to do with them eventually going to war with one another in the era of Richelieu, an on-again, off-again war which did not end until the era of the Thirty Years War in the mid-seventeenth century. This was not an isolated event, either. The French, English and Dutch all profited from smuggling to the Spanish Main from their little island colonies in the West Indies. But only the French Protestants went into the territory of the Spanish themselves. They set up colonies in the Florida Keys, and they set up a very profitable little operation on the north coast of the island of Hispaniola (modern day Haiti and the Dominican Republic) at the island of Tortuga. On Tortuga, the French profited both from smuggling, and selling ships stores to passing ships. One commodity with which they did well was the smoked meat of game they hunted on the main Island. The Spanish at Santo Domingo had never been able to interest any of their people in colonizing the western end of the island, which was low-lying and swampy. The French went into the forests there and hunted wild boar and the small deer native to the island, and smoked the meat on green-wood grills known by a name from the Indians which the French rendered as boucane. The men who did the hunting and meat smoking became known as boucaniers (and hence, the origin of bucaneers). When the Spanish learned of it, a body of mounted volunteers raised from among the idle young men of the large estates near Santo Domingo was sent after them, and because they used the lance they were known as the Lanceros. The French hated and dreaded the Lanceros, who by policy killed any Frenchman they found (considering them all to be heretics). One of the most feared of the French pirates in the great age of piracy in the West Indies, which was the seventeenth century (despite the reputation of such as Blackbeard in the eighteenth), was l'Olonnais. He had been a boucanier in the interior of the island, when all of his party was murdered by the Lanceros, and he only escaped by smearing himself with blood and crawling under a pile of bodies--a trick he would later use to escape the Spanish in Mexico. L'Olonnais became one of the most dreaded pirates in the West Indies, and routinely slaughtered any Spanish captives who fell into his hands.

Nevertheless, l'Olonnais was as roundly condemned and despised as Nunez had been for his slaughter of "heretics" a century earlier. Just because such slaughter was commonly practiced does not mean that it was a cultural norm which ought not to be condemned today, and more especially as it was condemned in Paris and Rome in the era in which it occurred. I agree with BubbaGumbo that some acts are so heinous that they are worthy of condemnation regardless of appeals to cultural norms. And i consider the Mr. Tomlinson's thesis is naive and based on an ill-informed view of history.
0 Replies
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 08:15 pm
patiodog,

people weigh the costs and benefits of an operation, and the estimated probabilities are not considered irrelevant as you suggest.

Quote:
The above is called racism or bias


so littlek, when you hear that someone is black do you assume they will have a darker skin tone than someone who is white? then by your definition, you are racist. your definition isn't right.

Quote:
I'd say that this second quote shows racism and bias, still, and would disagree as to whether there is nothing wrong with it.


It's safe to assume that you personally don't like racists. When you discover that someone is racist, do you decide you don't want to be friends with them, just because they are part of the "racist group?" I bet that you do. Then once again, that makes you "biased" in the same way.

Quote:
This is called discrimination and it's illegal.


Why do you bother to say this? Did you just want to highlight how much of an angel I am for saying that I did not condone this illegal discrimination? Well, thank you very much. I guess we agree...
0 Replies
 
patiodog
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 08:22 pm
Quote:
patiodog,

people weigh the costs and benefits of an operation, and the estimated probabilities are not considered irrelevant as you suggest.


I'm not denying that -- but neither can the physician decide that because 87% of such tumors are benign that this is benign.

Your statement, as I read it, was that one could draw generalizations about a group and decide not to like the members of that group. But even if the generalization about that group is correct, any given member of that group could in fact be the polar opposite of it.

(Really nothing more than a reiteration/recouching of setanta's comment regarding Lebanon as a Muslim nation...)
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 08:40 pm
An ethnocentrist believes his CULTURE (a social phenomenon) is superior; a racist believes his RACE (a physical phenomenon) is superior. They usually go hand-in-hand, but not always.
0 Replies
 
snood
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 09:11 pm
Well now you've got me trying to imagine a non-racist ethnocentric person, or a non-ethnocentric racist.
0 Replies
 
patiodog
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Oct, 2006 09:12 pm
snood wrote:
Well now you've got me trying to imagine a non-racist ethnocentric person


a canadian?
0 Replies
 
 

Related Topics

How can we be sure? - Discussion by Raishu-tensho
Proof of nonexistence of free will - Discussion by litewave
Destroy My Belief System, Please! - Discussion by Thomas
Star Wars in Philosophy. - Discussion by Logicus
Existence of Everything. - Discussion by Logicus
Is it better to be feared or loved? - Discussion by Black King
Paradigm shifts - Question by Cyracuz
 
Copyright © 2024 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.03 seconds on 11/12/2024 at 05:55:46