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not use it right?

 
 
Reply Sat 11 Mar, 2006 12:48 am
the following is a dialogue between two people,

--Why haven't you put the rug on the floor yet?
--I'm going to have it cleaned first.

Can't we say"i'm going to have it to be cleaned first?

What's the difference grammarically?
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dadpad
 
  1  
Reply Sat 11 Mar, 2006 07:06 am
I'm going to have it cleaned first.

Can't we say"i'm going to have it to be cleaned first?

What's the difference grammarically?

gramatically.......

This is a very hard question to answer.

For native english speakers the "to be" in this sentance are extra words that are not needed to make sense of the sentence.

"I will allow it to be cleaned" makes perfect sense though.
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chitterfisho0
 
  1  
Reply Sat 11 Mar, 2006 08:58 am
Thanks, dadpad;) it makes sense...
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JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 13 Mar, 2006 04:33 am
Re: not use it right?
chitterfisho0 wrote:
the following is a dialogue between two people,

--Why haven't you put the rug on the floor yet?
--I'm going to have it cleaned first.

Can't we say"i'm going to have it to be cleaned first?

What's the difference grammarically?


These are semi-passive structures, CF, and the word order is very important.

There are two of these semi-passives;

1) Have something done --> have it cleaned

2) Get something done --> get it cleaned

They mean;

3) "Have somebody do something" //

4) "Get somebody to do something"

I'm going to get Sandy to bake a cake.

but since the 'somebody' is often unknown and therefore unimportant, we end up with the passive structures 1) and 2) above.

Perhaps you're confusing these with the structure marked number 4), wherein an agent is mentioned. Then 'to' is used in that collocation.
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