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Thu 9 Mar, 2006 09:04 am
An intriging question bothers one.
How did proto-indo-european came about?
Because if the PIE speakers originated with URALIC speakers to the north
MOSKVA and other placenames are of finnish origins(the PIE homeland seems to be the RUSSIAN STEEPES)
How do you develop a proto-languague when those around you presumely already speak languagues of their own?
Well, around is a relative word, they didn´t have phones in 2000 BC you know. They probably also didn´t have a Moscow back then, at least not the name MOSKVA, which seems logical to me, because the (proto-) Finnish language didn´t exist untill 1000 BC.
But PIE did contain Uralic and Caucasian words.
I think, your question is somewhat ... well, aside, since PIE is the hypothetical common ancestor of the Indo-European languages.
Wikipedia has a good done summary of all the latest ideas.
right said. like the hypothetical TOE (theory of everything), the PIE is a concept of a language, that may naver have existed for all we know.
read this
right said. like the hypothetical TOE (theory of everything), the PIE is a concept of a language, that may naver have existed for all we know.
google "origin of the linguistic arguement". include the quotation marks in your search.
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