revel wrote:I am a stay at home mom and my husband works. Yet we consider any money he brings home to be our money. What is his is mine and what is mine is his.
If it is not naturally so that once a couple gets married then everything is shared between them, why do people have prenuptial agreements?
It's nice that you can agree that things belong to the both of you equeally. In an ideal world that would happen in every marriage and none of them would end in divorce. That ideal world doesn't exist thouugh.
Prenuptiual agreements exist because judges use reasonging along the lines of "...to live in the fashion he/she has become accustomed to..." when settling divorce cases. The prenup generally covers the people's assets that they have going into the marriage as well. But you generally only see them used when there is a very large disparity in wealth between the two. Partners who enter a marriage with equeal wealth and eqeal earning power don't bother because there is little benefit to them. And SS pays out regardless of any prenup.
Quote:The reason it is not fair to have a set amount specified for a stay at home parent is because what if the working spouse makes a lot of money? For one thing he or she most likely didn't do it without the support and help of his or her stay at home spouse. Or a parent who just happens to have a lower paying job but is still a equal partner in the marriage.
What if the working spouse makes a lot of money? I don't see much of what that has to do with it. There is a cap on reportable income for SS purposes. Whether they make $100,000 or $1,000,000 SS still will only credit them with about $80K right now.
While it's a nice idea that people are equeal in their marriages the existing system also ties the stay at home spouse (which is the woman in most cases) to their spouses income. What happens to the millions of couples that divorce? Should the stay at home spouse still be forced to be tied to their ex's earnings? That's hardly a fair situation for either of them. Why should my ex-wife be able to increase her retirement income based on income I've earned decades after our divorce? She isn't helping me increase my income in any way at all.
Quote:Being married is supposed to be mean having the advantage of a legal security in the event that your partner dies or divorce.
Why should someone have to get married or remain married to get that security? Why shouldn't they have it in their own right? Why should there be an "advantage"? What happened to "equeal treatment under the law"?