syntinen wrote:Quote:JTT: You're right, your example sentence doesn't point to a past time, Navigator.
But it may do, depending on the context. Suppose the full sentence was "It was difficult working with Jack; he could be quite unreasonable". Here
could is used simply in the past tense, i.e. "he had the capacity to be". Whereas if the full sentence were"I don't know if Jack would agree; he could be quite unreasonable",
could would be a future conditional (= "he might be")
Hello Syntinen,
I'm not suggesting that modals don't OPERATE {no yelling intended} in all time sequences, only that they are tenseless.
A: "It was difficult working with Jack; he could be quite unreasonable".
This 'could' isn't a past tense. It is a modal used by the speaker [A] [speaker's opinion] describing what he/she thinks is a general condition about Jack.
A: "It was difficult working with Jack; he could be quite unreasonable. *I remember last year, two days before Christmas, he could be unreasonable. *
{* denotes ungrammatical}
Here we see that 'could' doesn't do what a past tense is supposed to do, tell about a singular issue past time event. 'could' is actually saying, again, the speaker's opinion {modal meaning}, that Jack had that capacity to be unreasonable whenever. It wasn't something that finished, it was an ongoing thing, a condition that didn't occur just once, but was Jack's general condition.
To discuss the same thing, another speaker could use <can't>, a purported present tense modal to talk about the past.
"That can't have been Jack. He was the most reasonable person I'd ever met. 'A' just has a grudge against him. OR
That can't have been Jack. He is the most reasonable person I've ever met. 'A' just has a grudge against him.
All modals can be used in all time situations. That isn't something which points to their being "past tense". The best description for modals in modern English is tenseless.