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The Courts, the Constitution and the Federalist papers

 
 
wandeljw
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 08:34 am
foxfyre,

There must be at least some validity for your perception of judical activism. In recent years, congressmen have proposed several bills aimed at the federal judiciary.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 08:41 am
Well I admit I'm in over my head in some of this stuff, Wandel. I read carefully the argument Debra and Parados present and honestly do understand where they are coming from. But in my recently immediately former profession, I spent years dealing with attorneys and judges on a daily basis and know from personal experience there are a lot of bad judges out there.

The problem is that no matter how bad a judicial decision is, it becomes imbedded in the system and can be used as precedent to justify more bad decisions. It all seems to feed on itself.

And my understanding of the separation of powers tells me that the intent was for the judicial branch was consider Constitutionality or legality of the actions of the legislative and executive branches (at all levels) and it was never expected or intended for the judicial branch to assume the responsibilities or powers of the legislative or executive branch.

And that's why, unless somebody can convince me with facts or even good reason and logic that I'm all wet, I will likely support reasonable legislation clarifying exactly what the jurisdiction of the courts will actually be.
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 09:23 am
Foxfyre wrote:
Well I admit I'm in over my head in some of this stuff, Wandel. I read carefully the argument Debra and Parados present and honestly do understand where they are coming from. But in my recently immediately former profession, I spent years dealing with attorneys and judges on a daily basis and know from personal experience there are a lot of bad judges out there.

The problem is that no matter how bad a judicial decision is, it becomes imbedded in the system and can be used as precedent to justify more bad decisions. It all seems to feed on itself.

And my understanding of the separation of powers tells me that the intent was for the judicial branch was consider Constitutionality or legality of the actions of the legislative and executive branches (at all levels) and it was never expected or intended for the judicial branch to assume the responsibilities or powers of the legislative or executive branch.

And that's why, unless somebody can convince me with facts or even good reason and logic that I'm all wet, I will likely support reasonable legislation clarifying exactly what the jurisdiction of the courts will actually be.


Jurisidiction is the authority (power) given by law to a court to try cases and rule on legal matters within a particular geographic area and/or over certain types of legal cases.

The supreme law of the land has clearly stated what the jurisdiction of the federal courts will actually be:

"The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority. . . ."

Source: The United States Constitution, Article III, Section 2.

ALL cases arising under the Constitution means exactly what it says. It does not require clarification. There are no exceptions to the the word "ALL."

Congress does not have authority to make any law that would alter or diminish the judicial power of our federal courts as set forth in the constitution. If that irrefutable fact does not convince you, nothing will.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 09:49 am
The problem with going with only the clauses in Article III

So does the court get to write its own job description and can arbitraril make that prettymuch anything it wants? Most states have a 'list of duties' assigned to their supreme courts. The federal government seems to have no such animal.

Can the court decide what is and is not a 'case' or can that be guided by the legislative branch? Does the court have free rein to create a law where none existed before or does the legislative branch have no role in defining what is and is not appropriate in that area?

If the legislative branch moves to amend the Constitution, can the Supreme Court rule on whether the amendment they propose is unconstitutional?

If there is no power above the Supreme Court and no provision for mitigating the power of the Court, how is it that we are in fact not a totalitarian state rather than a republic where the people themselves are the final check and balances on government?
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 09:52 am
parados wrote:
I find it rather humorous (but downright scary) that people who claim they are strict constructionists when it comes to the constitution would attempt to pass a law that so clearly violates the constitution.

The Constitution says ....
Quote:
Section 2.


The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;--to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public ministers and Consuls;--to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;--to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;--to Controversies between two or more States;--between a State and Citizens of another State;--between Citizens of different States;--between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.


Did "all" mean something different in 1791 than it does today? Certainly if you are a "STRICT constructionist" then you must follow the exact meaning of the word "all"

When a law would state ...
Quote:
"Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the Supreme Court shall not have jurisdiction to review, by appeal, writ of certiorari, or otherwise, any matter to the extent that relief is sought against an entity of Federal, State, or local government, or against an officer or agent of Federal, State, or local government (whether or not acting in official or personal capacity), concerning that entity's, officer's, or agent's acknowledgment of God as the sovereign source of law, liberty, or government."


Can anyone seriously defend this as constitutional since the courts get to rule on ALL cases. How can they be prevented from ruling on some cases if the constitution says they get to rule on ALL?

If someone files a suit based on the constitution there is no way the legislature can prevent the courts from ruling on that case nor can they force the courts to rule a certain way without endangering our republic. (See my previous post.)


I just responded to Fox's last post, but I didn't see that Parados had already provided the irrefutable facts. In her zeal to restrict judicial power, Fox unjustifiably ignores Article III, Section 2, of the Constitution.

Congress does not have authority to pass a law that limits the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court as set forth in Article III, Section 2, of the Constitution. A mere legislative enactment (an inferior law) can never trump the Constitution (the supreme law).

Without doubt, there are many forms of governmental "acknowledgment of God as the sovereign source of law, liberty, or government," that may offend the First Amendment.

If Congress passes a law that provides that the Supreme Court shall not have jurisdiction to hear and decide cases arising under the First Amendment to the United States Constitution -- such a law would in itself be UNCONSTITIONAL as a violation of Article III, Section 2.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 09:59 am
No Debra, I have not ignored Article III at all (see my former post). I am saying that Article III, by your definition, gives the Supreme Court unrestricted powers. I think that's a bad idea. Tell me why it is a good idea.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 11:52 am
Quote:
I don't know Wandel. I'm pretty sure it never occured to Hamilton that judges would be looking to European courts using European law as a basis for their own rulings. Some of us find that at least incongruous and judicial activism at best and wrong and dangerous at worst and strongly disapprove of the practice. Given the propensity of some judges to create law that coincides with their person ideology and the possibility of really bad rogue judges, I would like to know that judges are not given godlike stature, that judges cannot make law with impunity, and that bad jurisprudence has no repercussions.
I am not sure how you came to this conclusion Fox. The Federalist papers are pretty clear on the role of courts BASED on how they worked in Europe. English common law is European. Montesque is French and is quoted by Hamilton as the basis for keeping the courts seperate from the legislature. The founders LOOKED to Europe to create the system and how it worked. The founders fully expected the courts to follow the judicial basis from Europe in how courts ruled. They look to common law, they look to other rulings, they look to meanings to find intent.
Quote:

The process of impeachment is lengthy, painful, and blessedly rare. But given the current climate and how I believe Hamilton viewed the courts, I think he would approve of our putting into place the means to remove a rogue judge from office at such time as that might be necessary. The current law makes that extremely difficult if not impossible to do.

Hamilton and the other Founders were aware that the Constitution and the entire system would prevail only when administered by men of good reputation, solid moral integrity, and good common sense. I think they might not have envisioned an America so diverse in ideology and values as we have now.
Fox, you are completely ignoring Fed 79 that wandel posted. The reason we made impeachment difficult was to prevent PRECISELY what you are proposing. The founders didn't want political attacks on the judges because it would weaken the judiciary. Common sense tells me that the founders are correct. The courts need to be protected from politics.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 12:39 pm
I wasn't complaining about the impeachment process Parados, but cited the difficulty of it as a reasonable protection against frivolous action against judges.

But I will ask you the same question I asked Debra and will be happy if each respond. If Article III gives the Supreme Court unlimited powers, how is this a good idea and how does that allow for the people themselves being the last line of defense? If Article III does not give the Supreme Court unlimited powers, what restricts its power?
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 12:50 pm
Foxfyre wrote:
The problem with going with only the clauses in Article III



Our government was organized into three branches: The legislative (Article I); the executive (Article II); and the judicial (Article III).

Where else are you going to look in the Constitution for the supreme law that defines the judicial power of the Supreme Court?


Quote:
So does the court get to write its own job description and can arbitraril make that prettymuch anything it wants? Most states have a 'list of duties' assigned to their supreme courts. The federal government seems to have no such animal.


No branch of the government, whether it be judicial, legislative, or executive, may arbitrarily define its constitutionally-conferred powers any way it wants.

The judicial branch doesn't get to write its own "job description." The judicial power of the Supreme Court is set forth in Article III. Likewise, the legislative power of Congress is set forth in Article I and the executive power of the President is set forth in Article II.

All states have organized their state governments into three branches of government through their state constitutions in the same manner that the federal government has been organized into three branches through the federal constitution. I don't understand your unsupported conclusion that state governments are somehow different and that the federal government is a strange animal.


Quote:
Can the court decide what is and is not a 'case' or can that be guided by the legislative branch?


Remember, Article III, Section 2, provides that the judicial power shall extend to ALL cases arising under the Constitution or the laws of the United States, etc.

For illustrative purposes, Congress passes the hypothetical law that provides the following:

Quote:
Hypothetical Law 101, Unlawful Entry into a House of Worship, Establishment of the Department of National Productivity:

Congressional Findings: Congress has the power to regulate interstate commerce and to make all laws that are necessary and proper to Congress's exercise of that enumerated power pursuant to Article I of the Constitution. Congress finds that interstate commerce is affected when the people spend time in their houses of worship when that time could otherwise be spent to increase national productivity. Congress therefore finds it proper and necessary to declare the following:

1. A house of worship shall be defined as any space, enclosed or open to the elements, where the people may congregate to worship the God or Gods of their choice.

2. It shall be a civil offense for any person to enter a house of worship and any person who violates this provision shall pay a civil fine in the amount of $5,000.

3. It is Congress's intent that this law shall be construed by the Courts as remedial (civil) rather than punitive (criminal). It is Congress's intent to remedy the affects that unproductivity have on the national economy, not to punish the individual(s) involved. Therefore, the procedural protections for criminal offenders contained inthe Constitution shall not apply.

4. Congress hereby establishes the Department of National Productivity (DNP) as an administrative agency within the Executive Branch. The DNP shall establish national productivity committees in every state and the committees so established shall have exclusive jurisdiction to determine if any individual has violated this law.

5. If the committee alleges that an individual violated this law, that allegation shall be presumed true. If the alleged offender cannot rebut the presumption by clear and convincing evidence, the the offender shall be fined $5,000 and failure to pay that fine within 30 days without regard to ability to pay shall be a crime punishable by $5,000 or 5 years in prison or both.

6. The judicial power of the courts to review any decision of a national productivity committee shall be limited to a determination of whether the alleged offender met his/her burden of proof to overcome the statutory presumption.

7. Congress has determined that this law is necessary and proper to Congress's power to regulate interstate commerce and the Courts shall not have jurisdiction to review this Congressional determination.

8. Congress has determined that this law does not violate the First Amendment because the people still have the right to associate with others and to freely exercise their religion, they simply may not spend time in houses of worship when that time could otherwise be spent to increase national productivity. The Courts shall not have jurisdiction to review this Congressional determination.


If you review the above hypothetical law, you may think it's ridiculous -- but it's not. Our government is notorious for recharacterizing offenses as remedial / civil rather than punitive / criminal as a clever means to avoid the proscriptions of the Constitution. How many legislative violations of the Constitution can you identify in the hypothetical law? If you are educated to identify stealthy governmental encroachments upon civil liberties, then you will find a multitude of constitutional violations -- yet all of those constitutional violations have been insulated from any meaningful judicial review (which is also common place in the "administrative law" context.)

Fox naively asks, "Can the court decide what is and is not a 'case' or can that be guided by the legislative branch?"

This question is so naive because she advocates a position of legislative oversight of judicial powers and at the same time fails to understand the fatal blow to the Constitution that would logically follow if the people blindly agreed with her position. Fox desires to change the very essense of our constitutional government in order to get what she wants. But she fails to understand that the very power she wants to vest into the legislative branch to curtail judicial review would have devastating effects and render the constitution meaningless.

If Congress could determine what is a case or controvery subject to judicial review and could determine for itself whether its laws violate the Constitution and prohibit judicial review -- there would be nothing to stand in the way of Hypothetical Law 101.

Look forward in time. What if in a hundred years from now, in the year 2105, that 51 percent of the people believe that the most important thing to security of our nation is to increase individual productivity and believe the bible-banging activities of the religious right are harming our economy? Could 51 percent of the people deny the other 49 percent of the people the right to enter their houses of worship? If we do what Fox wants us to do -- to agree with her -- then the people, through their elected representatives in Congress, could pass Hypothetical Law 101.

If Congress itself has determined that Hypothetical Law 101 does NOT prohibit free exercise, but merely places a necessary and proper time, place, or manner restriction on the right in furtherance of its commerce clause powers, there would be no judicial review. The courts would not be allowed the independence to review the law and determine whether Hypothetical Law 101 violated the rights of the minority with respect to free exercise of religion under the First Amendment.

To the majority: Be careful what you wish for -- you just might get it. Before you advocate a position that completely guts the independence of the judiciary and renders the constitution meaningless, you better use your powers of reason and logic and look at the consequences.



Quote:
Does the court have free rein to create a law where none existed before or does the legislative branch have no role in defining what is and is not appropriate in that area?


IF you want the legislative branch to have the ultimate authoritative power concerning the interpretation of the Constitution and what constitutes "cruel and unusual punishment," "due process of law," (e.g., recharacterizing offenses as civil / remedial rather than criminal / punitive), the "establishment of religion," or the "free exercise of religion," then travel down the road you are advocating.

It's a two-edged sword. If Congress should determine that a law that makes it a civil offense for any person to enter a house of worship does NOT prohibit the free exercise of religion -- and if you should desire that determination to be authoritative and NOT subject to judicial review -- then advocate away! I think you are naive and are making this country a mockery, but don't let my opinions stop you from leading this country down the path of destruction wherein no person's fundamental rights will be secured by the Constitution.



Quote:
If the legislative branch moves to amend the Constitution, can the Supreme Court rule on whether the amendment they propose is unconstitutional?


Look at Article V: If two-thirds of the Congress propose an amendment and three-fourths of the states ratify the amendment -- then the amendment becomes the SUPREME LAW OF THE LAND. An amendment that comes later in time explicity or implicitly repeals or supercedes any earlier provision that conflicts with the amendment.

See the 18th Amendment that prohibited the manufacture, sale, or transportation of intoxicating liquors within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States. It was the law of the land. The Supreme Court has no power to declare any part of the constitution unconstitutional. That makes no sense. The 18th Amendment was the supreme law of the land until it was repealed by the 21st Amendment.

Accordingly, two-thirds of the Congress could propose to amend the Constitution to strip power from the Judicial Branch, to confer the power to interpret the Constitution solely to Congress, and to establish a CONCLUSIVE presumption that all laws are constitutional and not subject to judicial review. If three-fourths of the States ratify the proposed amendment, it becomes the law of the land.

If that's what you truly want -- go for it. We will then have a pure democracy (rather than a republican form of government) wherein 51 percent of the people, through their elected representatives, will have the power to take away the rights of the remaining 49 percent of the people. The minority will not have any right to an independent judicial review and that will be our way of life until the next bloody revolution.


Quote:
If there is no power above the Supreme Court and no provision for mitigating the power of the Court, how is it that we are in fact not a totalitarian state rather than a republic where the people themselves are the final check and balances on government?


There is a power above the Supreme Court. It's WE THE PEOPLE. If we don't want the Supreme Court to have the power to interpret the Constitution and to stand as the guardian of our individual rights secured therein, then we can take the power away from the Supreme Court.

Is that something you want? Think about it long and hard. You want the Supreme Court's jurisdiction limited so that the Legislative branch has the power to decide whether or not monuments to the Ten Commandments may be placed on public grounds, or whether children may be executed, or whether women should have the right to decide whether or not to bear children.

You seem to believe, that if the Supreme Court determines that the Constitution does not allow the majority of the people to impose their moral or religious beliefs upon others through laws, that the Supreme Court has somehow violated YOUR right to majority rule. This tells me that you do not even possess a fundamental understanding of the difference between a republican form of government and a pure democracy.

OMG! The Supreme Court ruled that it violates the Constitutional prohibition against cruel and unusual punishments for states to inflict the death penalty upon children (defined to be persons under the age of 18.) That's bullshit! I'm a member of the majority and we, the MAJORITY, want the right to put children to death when they commit atrocious crimes!

FACT: The MAJORITY of the people, through their elected representatives, have the right to enact any law that does NOT violate the constitution (the fundamental, supreme law of the land).

FACT: If the majority of people want to violate the Constitution any time it wants to, then they need to shackle the powers of our constitutional guardians.

If you want to learn about the true evils of living in a totalitarian state, then do exactly what you are advocating . . . and when your elected representatives decide to extinquish the people's right to vote and subject the people to whatever laws they choose to enact . . . and to get rid of all dissenters in a reign of terror . . . where will you turn to safeguard your rights and avoid a trip to the gallows or the guillotine?
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 01:01 pm
Can you show me where I advocated any of that Debra? Surely you do not equate asking an honest question as advocacy for a totalitarian state?

I am opposed to judicial activism yes, in my own defintion. But that doesn't seem to be the issue here.

The rules governing the Supreme Courts of the states are different because most have their duties and responsibilities spelled out. Article III does not spell out anything other than, apparently, the Supreme Court has unlimited jurisdiction over any matter which it says is a case.

I appreciate that you see the courts as defenders of the Constitution and the rights of the people. I am asking you again, however, are there any limits on the high court's powers? If so what are they? And if only malfeasance by a judge is grounds for impeachment, and apparently the judges determine what is and what is not malfeasance, how is any branch of government having unspecified, unlimited powers a good thing?
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 01:29 pm
Parados, your point about the American laws and courts being patterned after English common law is pertinent. That is after all the experience the Federalists had up to that point. I'll think on that one some more, but I am opposed to American courts now using European law as precedent for current decisions to be made.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 01:47 pm
Foxfyre wrote:
Your argument has a logical flaw that I hope I can point out to you. You want to remove judges for failing to follow the constitution but then you violate the constitution to reach your conclusion. I can only relate this to "Do as I say, not as I do"

Quote:
The problem with going with only the clauses in Article III
You start your argument with the premise that we can't look to the constitution for the answer. Isn't that the reason you want to impeach judges?

Quote:
So does the court get to write its own job description and can arbitraril make that prettymuch anything it wants? Most states have a 'list of duties' assigned to their supreme courts. The federal government seems to have no such animal.
The courts job description is pretty clear. All cases in facts and law arising from the constitution. You can't redefine the word "all" without violating the constitution. State courts are irrelevant when it comes to the Federal courts. The US constitution is the ONLY relevant documment if we follow your argument for impeaching judges.

Quote:
Can the court decide what is and is not a 'case' or can that be guided by the legislative branch? Does the court have free rein to create a law where none existed before or does the legislative branch have no role in defining what is and is not appropriate in that area?
The court can't "define" a case. The court can only ACCEPT or DENY cases that are brought before it. The courts are not soliciting cases nor are they creating cases out of thin air. All cases are brought through an action by citizens or government. The legislature can NOT define what is NOT a case under the constitution. That is clear from the meaning of the word "all" in the constitution. The legislature defines cases under law by passing laws. If no law then no case.

Quote:
If the legislative branch moves to amend the Constitution, can the Supreme Court rule on whether the amendment they propose is unconstitutional?
Of course not, that is clear in the constitution. An amendment is not law or constitution when it is proposed so is not covered under court jurisdiction. Once it is ratified it "shall be valid to all Intents and Purposes, as Part of this Constitution". At that point courts can only INTERPRET it when cases are brought under it. A part of the constitution can not be unconstitutional.

Quote:
If there is no power above the Supreme Court and no provision for mitigating the power of the Court, how is it that we are in fact not a totalitarian state rather than a republic where the people themselves are the final check and balances on government?
This is pretty clearly covered in the constitution and in the Fed papers. The people can abolish or amend the constitution. The people are the power that mitigates the courts through the constitution. The power structure is 1. people, 2. Constitution. 3. The govt and laws.

Fed 78 states:
Quote:
Though I trust the friends of the proposed Constitution will never concur with its enemies, in questioning that fundamental principle of republican government, which admits the right of the people to alter or abolish the established Constitution, whenever they find it inconsistent with their happiness
You appear to be questioning the principles of a republican government, Fox in questioning if people have the final say. I think it is clear we do. We can abolish the Constitution next week if anyone can find the votes for it.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 02:05 pm
Foxfyre wrote:
Quote:
And if only malfeasance by a judge is grounds for impeachment, and apparently the judges determine what is and what is not malfeasance, how is any branch of government having unspecified, unlimited powers a good thing?


The judges don't determine what is malfeasance, the Congress does in the impeachment process. If the judges are so bad why has there been no impeachment started? I can tell you precisely why. It would be political suicide for the Congress to try to do that. I love the constitution a lot more than I love my legislators. If they want to attack the Constitution then they are gone. I might disagree with the courts on some cases but I will ALWAYS disagree with the idea of a bad ruling makes for impeachment.

Stop and think about the number of conservative newspapers that have come out against Delay on his call for impeachment. A lot of conservatives would not go along with this blatent attempt to violate the constitution any more than the majority of liberals would. I can pretty much guarentee that 80-90% of legislators that attempted to instigate mass impeachments would be gone in the next election, if not before in resounding recall elections.
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Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 02:34 pm
Parados, you and Debra are reading a whole lot more into what I think and what I mean and what I intend than can be logically concluded from anything I have said. Of course that is the whole issue with the courts isn't it? Interpreting meaning and intent? Debra seems to think that if the courts are capable of error at all, that such error is insignificant when compared to the protections and good that the courts provide. And because I dare question how we can know the courts do that and will continue to do that, I am ever so subtlely accused of advocating a totalitarian judgment and injustice throughout the world. Smile

I wasn't even aware Delay has called for impeachment frankly, and I am pretty much of a news junkie, so the sound and fury must not be too terrible. I was aware that he said (and has been hugely criticized for saying it) judges would have to answer for their decisions and in that I am with him 100%. I do not think judges should be immune from either scrutiny or criticism and I do think they should be held accountable for what they do just like everybody else.

In fact the latter is what has prompted this whole line of questioning. Neither you nor Debra have opted to answer my most pointed question: How is the Supreme Court having total power and not having to answer to anybody a good thing?

I am not wanting to impeach anybody. But neither am I willing to have my freedoms eroded or my values compromised or the law poked in the eye by some judge with his/her own peculiar ideology who just happens to have the power by virtue of the courts to do it. I am weary of a litigious society that keeps pumping more and more 'precedence' into the record and thus imposes more and more requirements, restrictions, and erosion of little freedoms on the rest of us.

I am yet undecided on what I think should happen here or how it should be done. But to just say oh well, everything is fine as it is and let's don't worry about it, just isn't my style. I think Madison did think it mete and good that the judiciary was the weakest of the three powers having no powers afforded the legislative and executive branches. I think the courts have now become the most powerful and I think business, the schools, just about everybody are being compromised in fear of lawsuits and what the courts might mandate.

So maybe some defined checks and balances on the courts would be a bad idea or maybe its a good idea. I'm trying to educate myself on the subject.

And how bad do the rulings have to get before you would change your view that a bad ruling should have no consequences?
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 02:42 pm
Quote:
How is the Supreme Court having total power and not having to answer to anybody a good thing?


This is the same species of question as "Have you stopped beating your wife?" Whether one answers yes or no, one has implicitly admitted to beating one's wife.

This question can only be answered by accepting the contention that the Supremes have "total power," and answer to no one. Since such a statement is untrue, there is no point in attempting to answer such a question.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 03:07 pm
Well so far nobody has said they how they don't have total power except through the ability to amend the constitution and/or remove them for malfeasance. Otherwise, how are they restricted from ruling however they wish in whatever is presented to them? That subject seems to be almost intentionally avoided here.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 03:11 pm
Fox writes:
Quote:
So maybe some defined checks and balances on the courts would be a bad idea or maybe its a good idea. I'm trying to educate myself on the subject.


There is a defined check on the courts. Its called amendments to the constitution. I don't know how clear we can be on this point.

If you want to write an amendment that restricts courts from using foreign courts in any way then go ahead. That is the way to do it. A law will not.
0 Replies
 
wandeljw
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 03:13 pm
foxfyre,
parados has a good point about courts not soliciting any cases. if the courts do any lawmaking, it is only in a passive way. courts are not usurping the legislative function. congress has a lawmaking power that is much more active.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 03:14 pm
You continue to ignore that their rulings can only arise from litigation, which litigation they neither solicit nor originate. It is a citizen, an organization or governmental body which litigates, and any review of the constitutionality of a particular law arises from that. The court is not imbued with anything like "total power." That is a statement (and a false one) characterizing the Supremes in an almost hysterical tenor.

There are a select few areas in which the Supremes have original jurisdiction. Otherwise, their jurisdiction is appellate, meaning that they are greasing, or refusing to grease, someone else's squeaky wheel.

This is the classic case of Luther's "whose ox was gored" conundrum. Conservatives only howl about judicial activism when it doesn't suit their personal agenda.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 21 Apr, 2005 03:15 pm
Fox writes:
Quote:
Well so far nobody has said they how they don't have total power except through the ability to amend the constitution and/or remove them for malfeasance
I think both Deb and I have said this repeatedly. The courts only have power in the area that constitution gives them power. That is NOT total power at all. It is only total power in their area. Do you think the President has "total power" because he is commander in chief? No one else can order the military because the constitution gives him that power. No one else can rule on the law and constitution because that is the power the courts are given. Can the legislature write a law saying the PResident is no longer Commander in Chief? That is what you are proposing happen to the courts.
0 Replies
 
 

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