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infinitive phrases and indirect objects

 
 
Reply Sun 20 Feb, 2005 01:40 pm
Hi. I am currently teaching middle school English, and my students and I believe the textbook we are using to be in error. I'd like another opinion before we write to the textbook editors. In the chapter on infinitive phrases, the book uses this example: "My mother wants him to go to the store." The textbook states that "him to go to the store" is the infinitive phrase used as a direct object. It further goes on to diagram this phrase with "him" being diagramed as the subject of the phrase. We believe this can't be correct for several reasons. First of all, the fact that it is a phrase should eliminate any possibility of it having a subject. It would be different if it were a clause. Secondly, "him" is an objective case pronoun, and could not be used as a subject. We believe that "him" is actually an indirect object, and "to go to the store" is the infinitive phrase used as a direct object. Any thoughts? My grammar students would really get a kick out of correcting the textbook editors.
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Type: Discussion • Score: 1 • Views: 1,280 • Replies: 4
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Letty
 
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Reply Sun 20 Feb, 2005 02:04 pm
Hey, Deb. Welcome to A2K. I do believe that this is a special case, if I recall correctly. As a verb form, an infinitive such as you describe can have a subject. This is the only situation that I know, where an object can be in the nominative case. The entire phrase, him and all, functions as the object of the verb wants. I'm doing this from memory, so feel free to challenge.
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flyboy804
 
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Reply Sun 20 Feb, 2005 02:43 pm
I agree with Letty.
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rufio
 
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Reply Sun 20 Feb, 2005 06:50 pm
Ditto the two posts above. However, my Latin prof, who has been attempting to teach us English prescriptive grammar alongside Latin, says that there are two ways to look at it - as "him to go to the store" being the direct object of "wants" (with "him" as the accusative subject), or "wants him to go" being together as a verb phrase. I tend to like to think of it as the former though - it makes it easier to parse Latin word orders, IMO. That's also not the only place Latin uses accusative subjects with infinitives - so even if you interpret English grammar based on Latin, there's nothing really wrong with it.
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silversturm
 
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Reply Mon 21 Feb, 2005 07:02 pm
I agree. The Latin observation is very good too. The only other way I know how to say it is to ask what does the mother want?

My mother wants X.

If X were 'an apple' it would be obvious that it's the DO. Even though X is a phrase, that whole thing is still the DO. As for what is the subject of the phrase, just ask who is "to go"ing to the store. Well, "him" is going to the store, so it's the subject of the phrase in an objective case.
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