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Was the Dred Scott reference code for Roe v. Wade?

 
 
Merry Andrew
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 06:00 pm
I mean, 13th, 14th and 15th, Helen. (Slip of a finger. Sorry.)
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 06:17 pm
princesspupule wrote:
Thomas wrote:
princesspupule --

That sounds reasonable to me, and I would be comforted if Bush didn't have this persistent record of first stating fairly sensible principles, then doing the opposite in practice.



But he didn't answer whether or not he wanted to see Roe v. Wade overturned, simply that he would have no "litmus test" for any Supreme Court appointee. Shouldn't the right of choice remain a "constitutional right" that should be defended by anyone aspiring to the high court?


In short--absolutely not.

But to explain--The framers and ratifiers of the constitution expected the constitution to be applied as it was intended at the time of ratification. For example:

Thomas Jefferson--"Nothing has given to [the Court] a right to decide for the Executive, more than to the Executive to decide for [the Court].... The opinion which gives to the judges the right to decide what laws are constitutional, and what not ... for the legislature and the executive ... would make the judiciary a despotic branch."

James Madison--"... I do not see that any one of these independent departments has more right than another to declare their sentiments on that point."

Senator William Giles--"If ... the Judges of the Supreme Court should dare ... to declare the acts of Congress unconstitutional ... it was the undoubted right of the House to impeach them, and of the Senate to remove them."

James Madison--"Nothing has yet been offered to invalidate the doctrine that the meaning of the Constitution may as well be ascertained by the legislature as by the judicial authority."

And Abraham Lincoln almost one hundred years later--"... the candid citizen must confess that if the policy of the Government upon vital questions affecting the whole people is to be irrevocably fixed by decisions of the Supreme Court, the instant they are made ... the people will have ceased to be their own rulers, having ... resigned their Government into the hands of that imminent tribunal."

Emphasis mine.

The genius of the US Constitution is not that it may be interpreted differently to address different questions, but that it may be amended to address those questions.
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 06:24 pm
joefromchicago wrote:
princesspupule wrote:
Here's what was said about this during debate #3:
Quote:
SCHIEFFER: Mr. President, I want to go back to something Senator Kerry said earlier tonight and ask a follow-up of my own. He said -- and this will be a new question to you -- he said that you had never said whether you would like to overturn Roe v. Wade. So I'd ask you directly, would you like to?

BUSH: What he's asking me is, will I have a litmus test for my judges? And the answer is, no, I will not have a litmus test. I will pick judges who will interpret the Constitution, but I'll have no litmus test.

Despite his remarks in the third debate, Bush quite clearly has a litmus test for judges: he outlined it in the second debate:
Quote:
I would pick somebody who would not allow their personal opinion to get in the way of the law. I would pick somebody who would strictly interpret the Constitution of the United States.

Let me give you a couple of examples, I guess, of the kind of person I wouldn't pick. 

I wouldn't pick a judge who said that the Pledge of Allegiance couldn't be said in a school because it had the words "under God" in it. I think that's an example of a judge allowing personal opinion to enter into the decision-making process as opposed to a strict interpretation of the Constitution.

Another example would be the Dred Scott case, which is where judges, years ago, said that the Constitution allowed slavery because of personal property rights. 

That's a personal opinion. That's not what the Constitution says. The Constitution of the United States says we're all -- you know, it doesn't say that. It doesn't speak to the equality of America. 

And so, I would pick people that would be strict constructionists. We've got plenty of lawmakers in Washington, D.C. Legislators make law; judges interpret the Constitution. 

And I suspect one of us will have a pick at the end of next year -- the next four years. And that's the kind of judge I'm going to put on there. No litmus test except for how they interpret the Constitution.

Apparently, one test would be on the pledge of allegiance. And another test would be on a 147-year-old case that no longer has any validity. So I suppose we can confidently predict that Bush wouldn't pick any judge who would strike "under God" from the pledge or reintroduce slavery into the western territories.

That's certainly reassuring.


Oh please! The president was not stating that he would not choose judges who support Dred Scot. He was saying that Dred Scot was an example of a judge departing from interpreting the constitution and inserting his own "personal opinion."

Bush obviously meant he will not nominate a judge who substitutes personal opinion for constitutional interpretation. Let's not substitute partisan rhetoric (on either side) for reason.
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 06:31 pm
Thomas wrote:
According to this New York Times Op-Ed, it wascode after all. Judging by its tone, the comment seems a bit on the scaremongering side to me, but I respect the New New York Times so here goes:
Quote:
Abortion might be a crime in most states. Gay people could be thrown in prison for having sex in their homes. States might be free to become mini-theocracies, endorsing Christianity and using tax money to help spread the gospel. The Constitution might no longer protect inmates from being brutalized by prison guards. Family and medical leave and environmental protections could disappear.

It hardly sounds like a winning platform, and of course President Bush isn't openly espousing these positions. But he did say in his last campaign that his favorite Supreme Court justices were Antonin Scalia and Clarence Thomas, and the nominations he has made to the lower courts bear that out. Justices Scalia and Thomas are often called "conservative," but that does not begin to capture their philosophies. Both vehemently reject many of the core tenets of modern constitutional law.

For years, Justices Scalia and Thomas have been lobbing their judicial Molotov cocktails from the sidelines, while the court proceeded on its moderate-conservative path. But given the ages and inclinations of the current justices, it is quite possible that if Mr. Bush is re-elected, he will get three appointments, enough to forge a new majority that would turn the extreme Scalia-Thomas worldview into the law of the land.

There is every reason to believe Roe v. Wade would quickly be overturned. Mr. Bush ducked a question about his views on Roe in the third debate. But he sent his base a coded message in the second debate, with an odd reference to the
Dred Scott case. Dred Scott, an 1857 decision upholding slavery, is rarely mentioned today, except in right-wing legal circles, where it is often likened to Roe. (Anti-abortion theorists say that the court refused to see blacks as human in Dred Scott and that the same thing happened to fetuses in Roe.) For more than a decade, Justices Scalia and Thomas have urged their colleagues to reverse Roe and "get out of this area, where we have no
right to be."


Full article here


Has anyone thought that the president may have brought up Dred Scot instead of Roe for the very reason that only the KKK and the Aryan Nation believe that the reasoning in Dred Scot was correct? In other words, 99.9% of the public believes that Dred Scot was a horrible insertion of personal opinion into a constitutional issue; therefore it was much safer than another not-so-settled issue.
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 06:39 pm
Frank Apisa wrote:
One of the problems with the "strict constructionists" arguments...is that a decision like the Dred Scott decision is a "strict constructionist" ruling.

The Constitution of the United States...as originally written...did consider slaves to be less than human....3/5ths of a human each, if I remember correctly.


No. That reasoning is incorrect.

The Southern states wanted the slaves to be counted FULLY. The northern states wanted the 3/5ths designation--NOT because they considered slaves less than fully human. Instead, they didn't want the Southern states to have a huge majority in the House based largely on a population that had NO right to vote for its representatives.

Imagine the composition of the House in 1789 if slaves had been counted fully for purposes of representation.
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 06:47 pm
Also--the 3/5ths designation had nothing to do with slaves testifying in court. It was <b>only</b> meant to determine representation in the House of Representatives.
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bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 07:09 pm
Just an interesting side note...

The Congress which approved the 14th Amendment did not allow representatives and senators from the former slave states to be seated until <b>after</b> those states ratified the amendment.

This is odd for two reasons: 1. If those states needed to ratify the amendment, it meant that they <b>were</b> states, and, therefore, <b>should</b> have been included in the vote. 2. If they were not considered states at the time of the ratification of the amendment, there was no reason for them to ratify it--they must automatically abide by the constitution as amended. (Alaska and Hawaii did not have to approve all 26 amendments which had been ratified before the two territories were admitted as states.)

Edited for clarity.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 07:20 pm
bashtoreth wrote:
Oh please! The president was not stating that he would not choose judges who support Dred Scot. He was saying that Dred Scot was an example of a judge departing from interpreting the constitution and inserting his own "personal opinion."

What exactly was the "personal opinion" that Taney (or any of the justices who wrote for the majority in Dred Scott) inserted into the case?
0 Replies
 
HofT
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 07:35 pm
Joe - I think this is the relevant part:

"......And no word can be found in the Constitution which gives Congress a greater power over slave property or which entitles property of that kind to less protection than property of any other description....."
http://usinfo.state.gov/usa/infousa/facts/democrac/21.htm

Technically correct at the time.
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 07:43 pm
joefromchicago wrote:
bashtoreth wrote:
Oh please! The president was not stating that he would not choose judges who support Dred Scot. He was saying that Dred Scot was an example of a judge departing from interpreting the constitution and inserting his own "personal opinion."

What exactly was the "personal opinion" that Taney (or any of the justices who wrote for the majority in Dred Scott) inserted into the case?


I cannot tell you what Taney's thoughts were. I can only tell you that GW thought that was what Taney had done.

I need to research that and get back to you. I will reread the decision and give MHO....
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 07:49 pm
HofT wrote:
Joe - I think this is the relevant part:

"......And no word can be found in the Constitution which gives Congress a greater power over slave property or which entitles property of that kind to less protection than property of any other description....."
http://usinfo.state.gov/usa/infousa/facts/democrac/21.htm

Technically correct at the time.


Good quote. I would not say that it was "technically" correct, however. You will note that the constitution does not mention slavery. The framers purposely left it silent in that respect. That way the constitution could not be rejected because it went one way or the other. Slaves in the constitution were simply "other persons" (See Art. I, Sec. ii).
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 08:57 pm
OK, MHO:

The "personal opinion" which Taney inserted in the court decision was this: that slaves were "property." The Dred Scot decision hinges on the classification of slaves as property, but that classification is <b>not</b> in the constitution. As a matter of fact, a more plausible inference, "technically," from the wording of the constitution is that slaves were afforded all the same rights as nonslaves.

Here is the logic: 1. As mentioned in my preceding post, the constitution mentions slaves only as "other persons." 2. The 5th amendment states, "No <b>person</b> shall be held to answer for a ... crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a grand jury ...; nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself, nor be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law...." Since "other persons" is a subset of "persons," and since <b>no</b> person "shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law," slavery could have <b>technically</b> been considered repugnant to the constitution.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 09:00 pm
Joe --

I'm aware that slavery isn't a hot topic in contemporary jurisprudence. But I was expecting that it would be of interests for legal historians, and that lawyers would be interested in legal history. Anyway, thanks for the references!
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 09:16 pm
Posted by nimh elsewhere, and quite irrelevant here, but I couldn't resist...

http://www.liegirls.com/
0 Replies
 
bashtoreth
 
  1  
Reply Fri 22 Oct, 2004 09:25 pm
blatham wrote:
Posted by nimh elsewhere, and quite irrelevant here, but I couldn't resist...

http://www.liegirls.com/


That's a great site! ROFLMAO
0 Replies
 
Frank Apisa
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Oct, 2004 06:10 am
I cannot allow this opportunity to pass by!

The slave owners and traders not only had the Constitution of the United States on their side...they also had their god!

"Slaves, male and female, you may indeed possess...such slaves you may own as chattels, and leave to your sons as their hereditary property, making them perpetual slaves." Leviticus 25:44ff
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Oct, 2004 06:31 am
Merry Andrew wrote:
I seem to recall reading somewhere that Justice Taney, who wrote the Court's opinion in the Dred Scott case, was himself an anti-slavery adherent who wrote the decision from a strictly constructionist viewpoint. It has been suggested that his true aim in wording it as he did was to bring attention to the fact that the Constitution needed to be amended. Few, however, saw the absurdity in denying the status of humanity to chattel slaves and the 14th Amendment was not adopted until after a war had been fought over the issue.

Although he may have expressed some anti-slavery sentiments early in his life, by the time of Dred Scott he was definitely in the pro-slavery camp.

From the Wikipedia:
    "Taney's own attitudes toward slavery were more complex. Taney not only emancipated his own slaves, but gave pensions to those who were too old to work. In 1819 he defended a Methodist minister who had been indicted for inciting slave insurrections by denouncing slavery in a camp meeting. In his opening argument in that case Taney condemned slavery as "a blot on our national character." Taney's attitudes toward slavery, however, hardened over time. By the time he wrote his opinion in Dred Scott he labeled the opposition to slavery as "northern aggression," a popular phrase among Southern supporters of slavery."
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Oct, 2004 06:33 am
HofT wrote:
Joe - I think this is the relevant part:

"......And no word can be found in the Constitution which gives Congress a greater power over slave property or which entitles property of that kind to less protection than property of any other description....."
http://usinfo.state.gov/usa/infousa/facts/democrac/21.htm

Technically correct at the time.

I agree.

But I still have no idea what point you're trying to make.
0 Replies
 
HofT
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Oct, 2004 06:40 am
Bashtoreth - the quoted statement is in fact technically correct precisely because "property" is not defined in the constitution. Neither, as you note, is "slavery", so therefore Taney's construct of "slave property" is necessarily undefined in the constitution as it was at the time.

Thomas - you're greatly mistaken if you think that these are matters for historians. To see why, look at another reference >>>

John Rawls "A Theory of Justice"

>>> which makes the distinction between "legal persons" and "moral persons". The first and second groups overlap in most cases, but not all.

Is a severely retarded or brain-dead individual a "legal person"? Is someone suffering from terminal Alzheimer's disease? Even if they're of age, should they have the right to vote?

Is an unborn baby a moral person? How about another intelligent species, like a dolphin, or a dog? Clearly the last 2 aren't "legal persons", but if they have an existence as "moral persons" then they're entitled to some limited rights under our current laws.

These are very much contemporary questions, and related cases are considered daily by our legislators and the courts.
0 Replies
 
HofT
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Oct, 2004 06:52 am
Joe - pls see my comment above to Thomas, and note that at the time of the Dred Scott decision slaves were not "legal persons" under the law.

Whether they were "moral persons" is precisely the question Taney didn't address. If they were not, then the decision was right, if they were, the decision was wrong.

I don't know how to express the point more plainly than that, so I hope now you finally see it.
0 Replies
 
 

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