Denial
 
Reply Sat 7 May, 2016 04:43 pm
Hello,

I read the following sentence...

"Since all senses are nothing but forms of perception of the soul: assume only that it have distinct perception and hence distinguishing marks–with the distinguishing marks it does have inner language". (On the origin of language; translated out of German into English by Alezander Gode)

...and thought:

Shouldn't the first ''have" in this sentence not be "has"?

And with the verb "assume" is the writer telling me to just "adopt the idea" that the soul has (have) distinct perception and hence distinguishing marks–with the distinguishing marks it does have inner language?

With kind regards,
Den Atzeni
from the Netherlands
  • Topic Stats
  • Top Replies
  • Link to this Topic
Type: Question • Score: 1 • Views: 447 • Replies: 2
No top replies

 
Tes yeux noirs
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 May, 2016 05:24 pm
1. The first 'have' is correct and is the subjunctive. It is rather old fashioned and many people would use 'has'.

2. You understand 'assume' correctly.

Denial
 
  1  
Reply Sun 8 May, 2016 12:05 am
@Tes yeux noirs,
Thank you so much...

Kind regards,
Den
0 Replies
 
 

Related Topics

deal - Question by WBYeats
Drs. = female doctor? - Question by oristarA
Let pupils abandon spelling rules, says academic - Discussion by Robert Gentel
Please, I need help. - Question by imsak
Is this sentence grammatically correct? - Question by Sydney-Strock
"come from" - Question by mcook
 
  1. Forums
  2. » it have
Copyright © 2019 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.05 seconds on 10/21/2019 at 08:46:50