Reply Tue 13 Oct, 2015 12:13 pm
1) It is natural for him to be annoyed.
2) To be annoyed is natural for him.
3) Being annoyed is natural for him.

Do these three sentences make any sense? Personally, I think that their meaning is same. Please, say you opinion.

Are there alternative ways to express the meaning of sentences stated above?

Thanks to everybody.
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Type: Question • Score: 3 • Views: 430 • Replies: 2
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InfraBlue
 
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Reply Tue 13 Oct, 2015 01:44 pm
@Nousher Ahmed,
They all make sense, and they all convey the same meaning.

I'm sure there are other ways to express it but none come to mind right now.
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dalehileman
 
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Reply Tue 13 Oct, 2015 01:54 pm
@Nousher Ahmed,
Quote:
Do these three sentences make any sense?
Yes; although (2) and (3) are more open to interpretation, possibly make reference other folks' annoyance

Quote:
Are there alternative ways
Doubtless dozens or scores

I thought, "Annoyance is his natural condition," but then backed off owing to equivocation/ambiguity. Tho "...natural state" better but not by much

"For him, it's natural to be annoyed," "For him, being annoyed is natural," "Being annoyed for him is natural," all equivocal.

"Natural it is, for him to be annoyed" Sort of kidding. But maybe you'll find something here:

http://onelook.com/?w=*&loc=revfp2&clue=state+of+annoyance
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