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Fri 26 Jun, 2015 01:07 pm
Hi. I'm wondering if I can use the construction shown in example 2 (I mean if I can use an object pronoun after the preposition "at" meaning "at someone's house").
1) Mary is at Tom's (=at Tom's house).
2) Mary is at him (= at his house).
Sure, you can use it, but no one will understand it as you intend. A native English-speaker would assume that Mary were haranguing him, harassing him.
That's what I thought, but I wasn't sure. Thanks!
@Nat093,
Quote:2) Mary is at him (= at his house).
Not that.
Hereabouts, in this region, we might say "Mary is at his" but it's irregular, and I wouldn't recommend you say that.
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