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What is the difference between with and without "the" in " to experience itself"

 
 
Reply Sat 20 Jun, 2015 09:12 pm
It seems to me that when we first express "our experience", we'd use "the experience" to refer to "our experience" next that closely follows the expression.
Now the author only used " to experience itself" without "the". Does it convey the same meaning of " to the experience itself"?

Context:

The Unconscious Origins of the Will

We are conscious of only a tiny fraction of the information that our brains process in each moment. Although we continually notice changes in our experience - in thought, mood, perception, behavior, etc. - we are utterly unaware of the neurophysiological events that produce them. In fact, we can be very poor witnesses to experience itself. By merely glancing at your face or listening to your tone of voice, others are often more aware of your state of mind and motivations than you are.
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Type: Question • Score: 2 • Views: 402 • Replies: 4
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InfraBlue
 
  2  
Reply Sat 20 Jun, 2015 09:18 pm
@oristarA,
The writer is referring to experience in general, not to any particular experience.
0 Replies
 
McTag
 
  2  
Reply Sun 21 Jun, 2015 12:59 am
@oristarA,

Quote:
we can be very poor witnesses to experience itself


That means all experiences, every type of experience.
oristarA
 
  1  
Reply Sun 21 Jun, 2015 05:21 am
@McTag,
McTag wrote:


Quote:
we can be very poor witnesses to experience itself


That means all experiences, every type of experience.


Still points to/equals "our experience"?
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Sun 21 Jun, 2015 09:19 am
@oristarA,

Experience is a personal thing.
0 Replies
 
 

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