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were he to violate the secrecy of confession,

 
 
WBYeats
 
Reply Wed 23 Apr, 2014 01:36 am
-Were he to violate the secrecy of confession, sacrilege meriting excommunication would have been committed.

Do you think there's no difference between WERE HE TO & HAD HE BEEN TO?
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Type: Question • Score: 4 • Views: 463 • Replies: 7
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Apr, 2014 01:57 am
No, i don't think there is no difference, and i can't think why anyone would say "Had he been to . . . " which would be awkward, and arguably, not grammatically correct.
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McTag
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Apr, 2014 09:32 am
"were he to" means "if he did...."
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contrex
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Apr, 2014 11:09 am
@WBYeats,
WBYeats wrote:
-Were he to violate the secrecy of confession, sacrilege meriting excommunication would have been committed.


I believe the tenses are incorrectly matched in the above, and that it should be either:

or

Were he to have violated the secrecy of confession, sacrilege meriting excommunication would have been committed.

WBYeats
 
  1  
Reply Thu 24 Apr, 2014 12:22 am
@contrex,
By EITHER, do you mean Setanta's and Mctag's answer?
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Thu 24 Apr, 2014 02:42 am
@WBYeats,
No
0 Replies
 
contrex
 
  1  
Reply Thu 24 Apr, 2014 10:11 am
@contrex,
My post got mangled. I meant to write:

I believe the tenses are incorrectly matched in the above, and that it should be either:

Were he to violate the secrecy of confession, sacrilege meriting excommunication would be committed

or

Were he to have violated the secrecy of confession, sacrilege meriting excommunication would have been committed.
0 Replies
 
WBYeats
 
  1  
Reply Thu 24 Apr, 2014 10:41 pm
THank you~
0 Replies
 
 

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