5
   

goes no further than Shakespeare's English

 
 
WBYeats
 
Reply Tue 4 Feb, 2014 11:29 pm
If a person understands Shakespeare's 16th and 17th c. English, up to 21st c. modern English, but not middle English nor old English, what's the idiomatic way of expressing the idea? Can these?

-His English goes no further than Shakespeare's English.
-His English tops at Shakespeare's English.
-His English knows no higher than Shakespeare's English.
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Type: Question • Score: 5 • Views: 458 • Replies: 6
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MontereyJack
 
  1  
Reply Tue 4 Feb, 2014 11:41 pm
second and third ones are just bad english. first one sounds like he doesn't understand anything LATER than shakespeare, which is exactly the opposit of what you're trying to express. try "he can't understand any english older than shakespeare's english."
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Jack of Hearts
 
  1  
Reply Wed 5 Feb, 2014 12:03 am
@WBYeats,

His understanding of English goes back no further than Shakespeare.
0 Replies
 
Lordyaswas
 
  1  
Reply Wed 5 Feb, 2014 02:43 am
@WBYeats,
I would say....

"He's a clever bugger! He actually understands what Shakespeare was banging on about."
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WBYeats
 
  1  
Reply Wed 5 Feb, 2014 04:13 am
Thank you~
Lustig Andrei
 
  1  
Reply Wed 5 Feb, 2014 06:27 pm
@WBYeats,
I second Jack of Hearts on this.
WBYeats
 
  1  
Reply Wed 5 Feb, 2014 11:11 pm
@Lustig Andrei,
Thank you~
0 Replies
 
 

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