The Indefinite Pronoun "both"

... The word neither may be another one. Both neither and either indicate two, though either is indicative of one or the other which would be indefinite by nature, but on the other hand, neither is not both, and it seems NOT indefinite.

Both used as indefinite pronoun:
I met John and Bill. Both were drunk.

Both used as as a quantifier that qualifies the noun "men":
I met John and Bill. Both men were drunk.

See the difference?

No...

"Both used as indefinite pronoun:
I met John and Bill. Both were drunk."

The antecedent is John and Bill... that's not indefinite.

The alleged antecedent is in a separate sentence. You have misunderstood the scope of "antecedent". Note that many indefinite pronouns can function as other parts of speech too, depending on context. For example, in many disagree with his views the word "many" functions as an indefinite pronoun, while in many people disagree with his views it functions as a quantifier (a type of determiner) that qualifies the noun "people".

Is "I" indefinite- if I was to say...

"I am here." (instead of) "I, Michelle, am here."
No, the former is an exophoric reference, the name is known to the reader.

"That is nice." The antecedent may not be endophorically established, but "that" is never-the-less known to the reader.

In an indefinite pronoun, going by how all seem to be defining the term, the antecedent is unclear, it is indefinite, hence the name... hence the question.

"The alleged antecedent is in a separate sentence. You have misunderstood the scope of "antecedent". "

It's the same discourse.

If you think you know, why are you asking?

I'm not going to accept whatever anybody says as gospel. Either explain yourself in relation to what I believe I already know or don't. If I wanted to know what Cotex has already said, then I would've been content reading the wiki page.

Getting rude and insulting will probably limit the number of answers you will now get. (Calling me "Kotex"! The very idea!)

You asked for it by not reading the OP and insulting me with an idiotic answer; and you continue to avoid a proper answer. What good is an answer that doesn't parallel the question. That is why, as of now this question remains unanswered.

A poacher is walking down the road with a bag over his shoulder. A policeman asks what he's carrying and he tells him he has some piglets.
Policeman "If I guess how many you have in there, will you give me one of them?"
The poacher replies "If you guess how many I have, I'll give you both of them!"

Maybe, I'm thinking it is more than just the words both and neither:

Some, somebody, someone, something, any, anybody, anyone, anything, either, several, enough, many, most, much, few, least and little are the indefinite pronouns. They all have indefinite antecedents even when the context is completely understood.

E.G.

"Somebody was at the party."
(Who is somebody? What information might one find in the discourse to explain who somebody is? The way I see it is unless this is a reference to someone named Somebody, this pronoun is truely indefinite)

Everybody, everyone, everything, no, none, nobody, no-one, nothing, all, both, each and neither are something else. They all have definite antecedents either as the whole of something(pun intended), or definable aspects in the case of the words both and each. The only exceptions are when the words are misused.

E.G.

"Everybody was at the party."
(if the WHOLE which constitutes "everybody" was not previously mentioned in the discourse and every single human being was not present at the party, then the word "everybody" was misused.)

A poacher is walking down the road with a bag over his shoulder. A policeman asks what he's carrying and he tells him he has some piglets.
Policeman "If I guess how many you have in there, will you give me one of them?"
The poacher replies "If you guess how many I have, I'll give you both of them!"
(here, the poacher has two PIGLETS, and that is definite, not indefinite, i.e. the antecedent(what the pronoun refers to) is clear. Both is definitely indicative of two of something in particular, if not, then that is indicative of an incomplete thought)

"Both" is indicaive of two, but which two?

You're making an assumption that exactly what "both" refers to would normally be known to a reader.

Give me an example of that not being the case. At best, what both refers to would be pending, like the antecedent of an interrogative pronoun, though interrogative pronouns are not indefinite pronouns.

"I, Michelle, am here," is ambiguous because "Michelle" can refer to either "I" or someone or something that "I" is addressing.

You are assuming that a reader knows what "that" refers to in the sentence, "that is nice."

"Both were drunk" is an example of that not being the case.

You're assuming that what "both" refers to would be pending.

True, that is ambiguous now that I've read it again. Secondly, the reader would know what "that" meant or it would be an incomplete thought. The antecedent must come either from the discourse(via endophora), or from an extralinguistic situation(via exophora). I'm thinking failure in this regard would result in an incoherent sentence, keeping in mind that the antecedents of indefinite pronouns are vague(such as anybody) or variable(such as either), but are not known per se as some so-called indefinite pronouns(such as both, neither, all, etc.).

""Both were drunk" is an example of that not being the case."

This is an example of an incomplete thought.

Why is this not an incomplete thought? When I wrote that I assumed that the identity of both have not been established previously in the discourse, and I've also assumed that there is no external evidence as well.

Granted, but the point is that "both" fits the criteria of an indefinite pronoun.