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When to use contracted form 'to be'

 
 
Reply Mon 23 Sep, 2013 02:50 am
I was wondering what the exact rules are for when you can or can't use the contracted form of the verb 'to be'. I know how to use the verb myself, but as an ESL teacher I am looking for the rules for that, so I can help my students understand.

For example:
"He's late."
But not:
"There he's."

In the latter case, you should use the full form. There are more instances when you are not allowed to use the contracted form, but does anyone have a list or a set of rules for this?
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Type: Question • Score: 2 • Views: 3,670 • Replies: 3
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McTag
 
  1  
Reply Mon 23 Sep, 2013 05:23 am
@KvdPeijl,

It depends which words you want to stress: in your examples "late" and "there/ is".

It's not impossible to say something informally like "There it's over there", although here again, the stressed word is "there".
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JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 23 Sep, 2013 08:43 am
@KvdPeijl,
Quote:
but as an ESL teacher I am looking for the rules for that, so I can help my students understand.


Don't focus so narrowly on the "rules". Just do a lot of actual practice using the be verb. Students do not learn a language from memorizing rules.

Quote:
For example:
"He's late."


Contractions are an indication of informality, casual friendly speech. Using a noncontracted form, "He is late" could be an expression of anger, rigidity, ... .

Quote:
But not:
"There he's."


The reason that, a contraction, doesn't fly in the above case is because fronting the adverbial 'there' is an emphatic - "There he is!"

The non-emphatic, "He's there", with a contraction is fine.
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Mika Anna
 
  1  
Reply Wed 9 Apr, 2014 11:38 am
@KvdPeijl,
I've wondered about this, too. When I researched it, I found that when a sentence ends with a verb, you want to emphasize it. By putting it in contracted form, it is not emphasized, which makes it sound funny. But it only applies to verbs. "I can't" is a totally legitimate sentence. Hope I helped!
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