@joefromchicago,
How do you come to the conclusion that if 27% of victims are male and 96% of offenders are male... that means that ~26% of all sexual victimization of children is a male assaulting another male. I don't care what kind of semantics you want to use. That's homosexuality.
Those most certainly were your numbers. You used the # of children victims in that study, said they were used from 12 states and said that means approximately 4x the amount of victims are in the country. Which is absurd. That's only representative of a short period of time. Not the entire population of victims in the USA.
"My money is pretty safe. I'm confident that Seto said something like "approximately 3% of the population are pedophiles." What he didn't say (and what you can't provide any substantiation for) is that "approximately 3% of the population are child molesters. You do realize that the two things are not the same, right? "
A child molestor is simply someone who has been convicted of sexually assaulting a child. I made it clear that I was not referencing the amount of homosexuals (or heterosexuals for that matter) that were convicted of sexually assaulting children. I was attempting to find out the rate of pedophilia in both the homosexual and the heterosexual community. Therefore using the 3% figure is completely reasonable for the point I'm making.
You see part of your argument is using semantics. You say that a male who molests another male is not necessarily a homosexual. I stated explicitly earlier in this thread, that rather than state "those who engage in homosexual behavior" everytime, for the sake of this discussion I would simply refer to them as "homosexual". The reason being that, as I stated earlier, homosexuality is a sympton of a larger mental problem. So I don't care if they have sex with children only, if they're having sex with boys and they're men, they're engaging in homosexual behavior. I don't care if they're bisexual and like to have sex with both... they're engaging in homosexual behavior. And those who engage in homosexual behavior are MUCH more likely to be pedophiles than those who are heterosexual.
So can I go ahead and adjust the numbers and prove you wrong? Or do you still have objections?