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Does "communities" refer to the communites to which the aggressor belongs?

 
 
Reply Mon 10 Dec, 2012 10:21 am

Context:

3. Lack of remorse. The psychopathic aggressor expresses no remorse for the violence inflicted on his victims. On the contrary, a victim’s suffering is proof of his dominant position and serves to increase the internal stimulation he seeks as compensation for his emotional inadequacies.
4. Social polarisation. The psychopathic aggressor’s Weltanschauung is characterised by the idealisation of his reference groups and the denigration of stigmatised communities perceived as a threat. This Manichean socialisation reaches its full measure with the political criminal, whereas it remains at an embryonic stage with the serial killer, hindered by the intensity of his underlying psychological disturbances.
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 541 • Replies: 4
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McTag
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Dec, 2012 11:38 am
@oristarA,
No, the other ones.
oristarA
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Dec, 2012 09:55 pm
@McTag,
McTag wrote:

No, the other ones.


Thanks.
Exactly his "reference groups"? In that case, why not has used "the communities," which would have cleared the ambiguity?
Both idealisation of the groups and the denigration/stigmatisation against the groups are done by the killer ?
McTag
 
  1  
Reply Tue 11 Dec, 2012 02:49 am
@oristarA,

I would not enjoy analysing this text, because as you know, I think it's crap.
oristarA
 
  1  
Reply Tue 11 Dec, 2012 03:05 am
@McTag,
McTag wrote:


I would not enjoy analysing this text, because as you know, I think it's crap.


Okay. Leave it alone.
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