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Justice Scalia and Originalism in Constitutional Interpretation

 
 
High Seas
 
  2  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 12:29 pm
@joefromchicago,
Y-N-(n.a.)

Citizens (as I understood it) was a straightforward first amendment case. Somewhere in the oral argument the question was asked by one of the justices "...but if the government can ban videos, can it also ban books?" and incredibly counsel for the prosecution said "yes"! I'm real glad that decision was a "Y"!
joefromchicago
 
  3  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 12:34 pm
@High Seas,
High Seas wrote:

Y-N-(n.a.)

That's not how I would score it. But ask your legal colleague what he thinks the holding of Dred Scott was (my guess is that he doesn't know), and then you can classify my vote as a "Y" or an "N".
0 Replies
 
OmSigDAVID
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 12:41 pm
@Setanta,
Setanta wrote:
Well, if you were to provide a citation which unambiguously shows that the Supremes don't consider the National Guard to be the militia, there is still the matter of the provision for an unorganized militia in the Dick Act. Oralloy has stated that there is no militia, and i don't see that he has made his case. He certainly has nothing to offer other than his polemic.
Here is the cite.
I have not had time to re-read the case. Perpich v. Department of Defense, 496 U.S. 334 (1990),
Setanta
 
  2  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 12:48 pm
@OmSigDAVID,
According to FindLaw, the case in question was not challenging whether the National Guard constitute the militia, but whether the Congress can order Guardsmen to active service for training outside the United States. The FindLaw summary:

Quote:
Since 1933, federal law has provided that persons enlisting in a State National Guard unit simultaneously enlist in the National Guard of the United States, a part of the Army. The enlistees retain their status as State Guard members unless and until ordered to active federal duty and revert to state status upon being relieved from federal service. The authority to order the Guard to federal duty was limited to periods of national emergency until 1952, when Congress broadly authorized orders "to active duty or active duty for training" without any emergency requirement, but provided that such orders could not be issued without the consent of the governor of the State concerned. After two State Governors refused to consent to federal training missions abroad for their Guard units, the gubernatorial consent requirement was partially repealed in 1986 by the "Montgomery Amendment," which provides that a governor cannot withhold consent with regard to active duty outside the United States because of any objection to the location, purpose, type, or schedule of such duty. The Governor of Minnesota and the State of Minnesota (hereinafter collectively referred to as the Governor) filed a complaint for injunctive relief, alleging, inter alia, that the Montgomery Amendment had prevented him from withholding his consent to a 1987 federal training mission in Central America for certain members of the State Guard, and that the Amendment violates the Militia Clauses of Article I, 8, of the Constitution, which authorize Congress to provide for (1) calling forth the militia to execute federal law, suppress insurrections, and repel invasions, and (2) organizing, arming, disciplining, and governing such part of the militia as may be employed in the federal service, reserving to the States the appointment of officers and the power to train the militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress. The District Court rejected the Governor's challenge, holding that the Federal Guard was created pursuant to Congress' Article I, 8, power to raise and support armies; that the fact that Guard units also have an identity as part of the state militia does not limit Congress' plenary authority to train the units as it sees fit when the Guard is called to active federal service; and that, accordingly, the Constitution neither required the gubernatorial veto nor prohibited its withdrawal. The Court of Appeals affirmed. (emphasis added)


This case certainly does not affirm Oralloy's claim that the National Guard is not the militia, and in fact holds that it is.
0 Replies
 
OmSigDAVID
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 12:55 pm
@Thomas,
OmSigDAVID wrote:
Yeah, like I don 't remember the name,
just the cite.
Thomas wrote:
Perhaps you want to look up this decision. For what it's worth, I tried a Google search for ' "Supreme Court" "National Guard" militia ', and found no such decision. Based on past experience, I'm pretty sure it would have turned up the decision if it existed. So maybe you remember a dissenting opinion. Or maybe you remember a throwaway remark in an opinion that was immaterial to deciding the case and hence not legally binding. Or maybe you remember a comment on an opinion. The possibilities of fooling ourselves are endless,
especially around memories that support our ideology.
I don 't say that it does, Tom.
My memory is too vague on the holding; been a while.
I will re-read it. I have posted the cite.





David
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 12:58 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
wandeljw wrote:
Justice Scalia once claimed that the fourteenth amendment was not intended to prohibit gender discrimination.

And he's right.

He is right about the Amendment not being intended that way. But he would be wrong about the language not saying that. Take the case of US v. Anthony (1873). The United States charged the civil-rights activist Susan B. Anthony with illegal voting, defying state laws that restricted the vote to males. Anthony's defense was that she was indisputably a person, indisputably born in the United States, and therefore entitled to the equal protection of the law.

The jury found Anthony guilty of breaking state law. She refused to pay the fine. The US attorney, afraid that suffragettes might raise a stink, chose not to pursue her case any further. I don't think Anthony ever got a US appeals court to consider the merits of her legal theory---which is very convenient for the reactionary jurists of the time. Anthony was palpably correct under the 14th Amendment, parsed under the rules of 1873 language.
Thomas
 
  2  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 01:04 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
You ask me why "original intent" can't be consistently applied and then you quibble with my response because you think Scalia doesn't follow "original intent?" I don't feel obliged to answer questions that haven't been asked or reply to objections that might apply to some other question.

Fair enough. Then I reverse my quibble and say you're erecting yet another straw man against Scalia. Because Scalia's version of originalism repudiates the search for intent in no uncertain terms, it is misleading to criticize him on the grounds that original intent is unworkable.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 01:10 pm
@Setanta,
Setanta wrote:
Given that just about the only dictionary of the English language in use in the late 18th century was Johnson's dictionary, i find that proposition rather dubious.

Dictionaries are not the only reference works that would fit the bill. Encyclopedias would be another. And on legal terms of art like "due process of law", you would have to consult legal references whose titles I don't know, but of whose existence I am fairly confident.
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 01:16 pm
@Thomas,
I don't share your confidence.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 01:21 pm
@Setanta,
I'm not surprised. You have always struck me as the shy, insecure, silent type---so very different from my manly confidence and self-assurance.
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 01:27 pm
@Thomas,
Good point. Those nasty boys in the gun nut lobby really scare the bejesus outta me . . . that's why i won't go into that lobby.
0 Replies
 
OmSigDAVID
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 01:46 pm
@Thomas,
joefromchicago wrote:
Well, I also don't think that "originalism" can't be consistently applied
Thomas wrote:
Well, conservative commentators in the media are certainly doing their best to prove you right.
My favorite pet peeve about them involves the General Welfare Clause. . . .
Assuming that the Founders had INTENDED that clause to be binding and legally effective
in granting government jurisdiction to do whatever it damn pleases, if first it declares
such to be "in the general welfare" of the US,
that woud have been shot full of holes by the Bill of Rights in 1791,
whose purpose was to gut the jurisdiction of government 37 different ways,
in the knowledge that jurisdiction and personal freedom are INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL.





David
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 01:48 pm
@Thomas,
You need to check out Bradwell v. Illinois.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 01:59 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
Then I reverse my quibble and say you're erecting yet another straw man against Scalia. Because Scalia's version of originalism repudiates the search for intent in no uncertain terms, it is misleading to criticize him on the grounds that original intent is unworkable.

Here I'm going to have to ask you to cite some support, lest you erect your own strawman. Frankly, I don't think Scalia has ever taken the position that intent doesn't matter. The original post in this thread, for instance, contrasts Scalia's approach to that of Hugo Black, who could genuinely be viewed as a strict constitutional literalist. Scalia, however, rejects that approach (so does everybody else). As he's quoted as saying, for instance, "'the freedom of speech, or of the press' must be construed in light of how these terms were understood in 1791." That's just another way of saying that we need to know how the framers construed those terms, which is just another way of saying that we need to know what they intended those words to mean.

On the other hand, if you're positing a distinction between an "original intent" approach to constitutional interpretation and an "original meaning" approach, then you're going to have to do a better job of explaining that difference. For my part, I see none.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 03:59 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
Then I reverse my quibble and say you're erecting yet another straw man against Scalia. Because Scalia's version of originalism repudiates the search for intent in no uncertain terms, it is misleading to criticize him on the grounds that original intent is unworkable.

Here I'm going to have to ask you to cite some support, lest you erect your own strawman. Frankly, I don't think Scalia has ever taken the position that intent doesn't matter.

Your wish is my command. Scalia makes clear his distinction between original-intent jurisprudence and his own approach, which he dubs textualism, in his 1996 speech to the Catholic University of America in Washington, DC.

Scalia wrote:
I belong to a school, a small but hardy school, called "textualists," or "originalists." That school used to be "constitutional orthodoxy" in the United States.

The theory of originalism treats a constitution like a statute, giving the constitution the meaning that its words were understood to bear at the time they were promulgated.

You will sometimes hear it described as the theory of original intent. You will never hear me refer to original intent, because I am first of all a textualist, and secondly an originalist. If you are a textualist, you don't care about the intent, and I don't care if the Framers of the U.S. Constitution had some secret meaning in mind when they adopted its words. I take the words as they were promulgated to the people of the United States, and what is the fairly understood meaning of those words.

(Read the full speech.)

To be fair, Scalia descends into hypocrisy as he discusses women's rights just a few paragraphs later. But that's not my concern here. My only concern is that the above quote summarizes the approach that Scalia aspires to take, whether he actually takes it or not. Earlier, in his dissent on Edwards v. Aguillard (1986), he went even farther and openly mocked his brethren for trying to discern the intent of legislators.

Scalia wrote:
Discerning the subjective motivation of those enacting the statute is, to be honest, almost always an impossible task. The number of possible motivations, to begin with, is not binary, or indeed even finite. In the present case, for example, a particular legislator need not have voted for the Act either because he wanted to foster religion or because he wanted to improve education. He may have thought the bill would provide jobs for his district, or may have wanted to make amends with a faction of his party he had alienated on another vote, or he may have been a close friend of the bill's sponsor, or he may have been repaying a favor he owed the majority leader, or he may have hoped the Governor would appreciate his vote and make a fund-raising appearance for him, or he may have been pressured to vote for a bill he disliked by a wealthy contributor or by a flood of constituent mail, or he may have been seeking favorable publicity, or he may have been reluctant to hurt the feelings of a loyal staff member who worked on the bill, or he may have been settling an old score with a legislator who opposed the bill, or he may have been mad at his wife, who opposed the bill, or he may have been intoxicated and utterly unmotivated when the vote was called, or he may have accidentally voted "yes" instead of "no," or, of course, he may have had (and very likely did have) a combination of some of the above and many other motivations. To look for the sole purpose of even a single legislator is probably to look for something that does not exist.

Read the full opinion
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 04:13 pm
@OmSigDAVID,
In the Federalist Papers, arguably the interpretation on which "we the people" decided to vote for or against the constitution, James Madison agreed with your view and Hamilton disagreed. Accordingly, when the 1936 Supreme Court adopted Hamilton's interpretation and rejected Hamilton's, it picked one of the original interpretations over another. It couldn't have betrayed the framers' original meaning if they wanted to: There was no one original meaning. There was disagreement about the meaning all the way back to the beginnings. Your boldfaced, capitalized, and colorful outburst about personal freedom cannot change the facts of constitutional history.
OmSigDAVID
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 04:36 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
In the Federalist Papers, arguably the interpretation on which "we the people" decided to vote for or against the constitution, James Madison agreed with your view and Hamilton disagreed. Accordingly, when the 1936 Supreme Court adopted Hamilton's interpretation and rejected Hamilton's, it picked one of the original interpretations over another. It couldn't have betrayed the framers' original meaning if they wanted to: There was no one original meaning. There was disagreement about the meaning all the way back to the beginnings. Your boldfaced, capitalized, and colorful outburst about personal freedom cannot change the facts of constitutional history.
Hamilton wrote that b4 the Bill of Rights was enacted,
curtailing government jurisdiction!

The Bill of Rights is 1O constitutional amendments.

AMENDMENTS r changes,
rendering obsolete, abandoned n rejected the earlier material.
For instance, because of the 21st Amendment, we disregard the 18th
and government has lost power to control use of alcohol.





David
0 Replies
 
farmerman
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 04:59 pm
@Thomas,
I think the overall tone of the Fed Papers was that WE DONT NEED A BILL OF RIGHTS? and it wasnt even proposed yet. so Fed papaers are kinda like buying clothes for an unborn baby
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 05:29 pm
@farmerman,
farmerman wrote:
I think the overall tone of the Fed Papers was that WE DONT NEED A BILL OF RIGHTS? and it wasnt even proposed yet. so Fed papaers are kinda like buying clothes for an unborn baby

But it already did contain the general-welfare clause, which is the subject I talked about in this sub-thread. (Article 1, section 8, paragraph 1.)
OmSigDAVID
 
  1  
Reply Mon 19 Mar, 2012 06:41 pm
@Thomas,

farmerman wrote:
I think the overall tone of the Fed Papers was that WE DONT NEED A BILL OF RIGHTS? and it wasnt even proposed yet. so Fed papaers are kinda like buying clothes for an unborn baby
Thomas wrote:
But it already did contain the general-welfare clause, which is the subject I talked about in this sub-thread. (Article 1, section 8, paragraph 1.)
U mean what was changed by any of the next 1O amendments ???
Like, for instance: the 9th & 1Oth ??????





David
 

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