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Justice Scalia and Originalism in Constitutional Interpretation

 
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 11:40 am
@wandeljw,
wandeljw wrote:
In 1791 there was no understanding concerning the internet. Does this mean that the First Amendment can not be used to decide cases involving the internet?

No, because the speech is the same whichever way it's encoded---sound waves, ink on paper, or IP packets, it doesn't matter. Your rhetorical question is a strawman.
Thomas
 
  2  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 11:54 am
@OmSigDAVID,
OmSigDAVID wrote:
I reject your premises. It said n meant "arms" = weapons that can be borne.

Bazookas and flamethrowers can be borne. Just to be clear, are you saying that we the people have a right to personal bazookas and flamethrowers? What additional distinctions besides "bearability" would determine that, if any?

EDIT: Wandel's quote from Heller clarifies it. The distinction is arms typically borne by lawful citizens by lawful purposes.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 12:25 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
"Evolving standards of decency?" Sure sounds like a "living constitution" analysis to me.

It does, but Scalia's quotation marks clearly denote the term as somebody else's living-constitution analysis, not his own. Scalia then criticizes their analysis for being inconsistent on its own terms. (If evolving standards of decency are the benchmark, it's society's evolving standards, not those of the judges.) I don't think your quote implies that Scalia believes in living-constitution analysis. My guess is Scalia just plays along with it because he, unlike Thomas, also pays attention to precedent.

Of course, Scalia is also a sinner, as most of us are. But in my opinion, his sins tend to be sins against originalism rather than sins of originalism. (Bush v. Gore is a good example of a sin against originalism. Gore should have prevailed because the US constitution puts the States in charge of elections, and the Florida Supreme Court had decided for Gore. Instead, Bush won thanks to a super-stretched 14th-amendment analysis, of exactly the kind true originalists detest.)
joefromchicago
 
  2  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 12:45 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
It does, but Scalia's quotation marks clearly denote the term as somebody else's living-constitution analysis, not his own. Scalia then criticizes their analysis for being inconsistent on its own terms. (If evolving standards of decency are the benchmark, it's society's evolving standards, not those of the judges.) I don't think your quote implies that Scalia believes in living-constitution analysis. My guess is Scalia just plays along with it because he, unlike Thomas, also pays attention to precedent.

I agree with that analysis, but then that doesn't change my position. Scalia can't have it both ways. He can't be an originalist on some cases and follow a "living constitution" analysis on others depending on whether or not they're old cases. Either the constitution means one thing (which is Scalia's view of "originalism"), or it means a bunch of different things depending on what you want to accomplish (which is how Scalia views the "living constitution"). Those two views are irreconcilable -- Scalia has to pick one or the other, or else he's neither an "originalist" nor a "living consitutionalist," he's just being inconsistent.

In this respect, Clarence Thomas is far more of an originalist than Scalia. If Thomas doesn't think a long-standing precedent was decided properly, he'll vote to overturn it, or else just ignore it. Scalia, in contrast, is a wimp when it comes to precedent, which just makes him a bigger hypocrite than he would be otherwise.
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 01:28 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
Those two views are irreconcilable -- Scalia has to pick one or the other, or else

I disagree that those are the only choices, or even the only reasonable choices. Sometimes we see things moving in the wrong direction, but lack the power to make them right immediately. In scenarios like that, it can be reasonable to stick to your guns and be a hero. But it can also be reasonable to merely settle for lesser evils: for compromising tactically, for making baby steps into the right direction, or even just for slowing things down as they keep moving in the wrong direction. Lots of liberals today are settling for Obama on rationales like this; I don't think that this in itself makes them wimps.

Likewise, I don't see why principled originalists wouldn't settle for similar compromises, if that's what it takes to swing a case in the right direction (as they see it). Stanford v. Kentucky, a 4:4:1 decision, seems to have put Scalia into just such a position. (Full disclosure: I haven't read the opinions, I just looked at the votes for each, and saw that the case was pretty darn close.) What was so wrong with Scalia settling for the lesser evil?
OmSigDAVID
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 01:44 pm

A "living-constitution" is NO constitution.
A "living-constitution" is anarchy.

Imagine that u take a new job,
and after working for a month,
u apply to get paid, as per the terms
of your contract of employment,
but your efforts r met with only
a minute fraction of what u expected.
Upon inquiry, u r informed that
it was a "living-contract" and
it lived in the direction of u getting paid a lot less.

That is equally acceptable n tolerable as a "living-constitution"; no distinction in principle.

A "living-constitution" is a vehicle of cheating by the more powerful party.





David
0 Replies
 
OmSigDAVID
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 02:03 pm
@Thomas,
joefromchicago wrote:
"Evolving standards of decency?" Sure sounds like a "living constitution" analysis to me.
Thomas wrote:
It does, but Scalia's quotation marks clearly denote the term as somebody else's living-constitution analysis, not his own. Scalia then criticizes their analysis for being inconsistent on its own terms. (If evolving standards of decency are the benchmark, it's society's evolving standards, not those of the judges.) I don't think your quote implies that Scalia believes in living-constitution analysis. My guess is Scalia just plays along with it because he, unlike Thomas, also pays attention to precedent.

Of course, Scalia is also a sinner, as most of us are. But in my opinion, his sins tend to be sins against originalism rather than sins of originalism. (Bush v. Gore is a good example of a sin against originalism. Gore should have prevailed because the US constitution puts the States in charge of elections, and the Florida Supreme Court had decided for Gore.

Instead, Bush won thanks to a super-stretched 14th-amendment analysis, of exactly the kind true originalists detest.)
Tom, r u alleging that the Supreme Court of Florida ruled
that Gore had won that State ????????


After all the re-counting had been finished,
the left-leaning press of America, major media outlets, sent representatives
to count it for themselves and thay coud not find a different result.
Thay did not allege that Gore had won Florida.

Gore himself did not allege that,
and he declared that W had been elected President.





David

0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  2  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 02:45 pm
@Thomas,
You're missing the point. I don't have a problem with Scalia adopting any sort of constitutional analysis he wants. He can even adopt multiple interpretative models at once or employ them seriatim. That doesn't bother me. Scalia's problem is that he wants everyone to think that he's being a consistent originalist, even when he's employing a "living constitution" approach that he so frequently derides. That's why he has to pick one approach -- not because every justice must, but because anyone who claims to be consistent has to pick something to which he will actually remain consistent.

To that end, I don't see how one can be a "principled originalist" while compromising those principles. Justice Thomas seems to be able to stick to his principles, so it's not like it can't be done.
High Seas
 
  0  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 02:54 pm
@joefromchicago,
One of my associates really tried to get a ticket for the Obamacare extravaganza next week at the Supreme Court and finally managed it courtesy of Justice Thomas. In that connection I asked my resident legal eagle about consistency and he said it's deciding to vote either Y or N on all 3 of the following:
- Dred Scott
- Bush v. Gore
- Citizens United

I would have voted Y on all 3 - as of course the actual justices did. You have to allow for changing norms and not force everyone into Procrustean (Thomasian?) methods for the sake of "consistency"!
OmSigDAVID
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 02:58 pm

FOR THE RECORD:
I 'd have voted with the majority of the USSC
in:
Dred Scott
Bush v. Gore
and Citizens United





David
0 Replies
 
oralloy
 
  0  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 03:46 pm
@wandeljw,
Quote:
Then Justice Scalia took audience questions. The first query concerned Bush v. Gore, and he repeated his usual mantra: “Get over it!” He did add, however, that “on the principal issue [of whether the Equal Protection Clause was violated], the vote was 7-2 — not even close.” The vote was 5-4 on the issue of remedy, which he described as “whether to give these people [a few more] weeks to sort out this mess” — during which the government would essentially be paralyzed, trapped in a state of limbo, unable to transition to the next presidential administration.

“The majority said, ‘Basta!’ And by and large, the county agreed.” (The “Basta!” line, which I hadn’t heard before, was met with a surprising amount of laughter from the Wesleyan crowd.)


Actually, federal law was going to put an end to it soon in any case, as Gore had only until December 12 to overturn Bush's certification as winner.

The great concern was really that the Democrats, having failed to cheat their way to a recount victory, were deliberately dragging the process out past December 12 as part of a scorched earth campaign to give Bush the illusion of illegitimacy.
0 Replies
 
oralloy
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 03:54 pm
@parados,
parados wrote:
SO... as a strict constitutionalist, you think the 2nd amendment only refers to muzzle loading arms, correct?

Or are you willing to change the meanings of that part of the Constitution?


There is no change in the meaning when modern weapons are covered by the Second Amendment. The Framers intended that the militia be equipped with potent weapons to make them a competent fighting force.

Forcing the militia to use weapons that became obsolete 200 years ago would be the exact opposite of what the Framers intended.
parados
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 04:03 pm
@oralloy,
So then I can possess a suitcase nuke under your interpretation of the US Constitution?
oralloy
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 04:08 pm
@wandeljw,
wandeljw wrote:
Scalia's opinion in Heller does suggest that not all weapons are protected by the second amendment:

Quote:
We may as well consider at this point (for we will have to consider eventually) what types of weapons Miller permits. Read in isolation, Miller’s phrase “part of ordinary military equipment” could mean that only those weapons useful in warfare are protected. That would be a startling reading of the opinion, since it would mean that the National Firearms Act’s restrictions on machineguns (not challenged in Miller) might be unconstitutional, machineguns being useful in warfare in 1939. We think that Miller’s “ordinary military equipment” language must be read in tandem with what comes after: “[O]rdinarily when called for [militia] service [able-bodied] men were expected to appear bearing arms supplied by themselves and of the kind in common use at the time.” 307 U. S., at 179. The traditional militia was formed from a pool of men bringing arms “in common use at the time” for lawful purposes like self-defense. “In the colonial and revolutionary war era, [small-arms] weapons used by militiamen and weapons used in defense of person and home were one and the same.” State v. Kessler, 289 Ore. 359, 368, 614 P. 2d 94, 98 (1980) (citing G. Neumann, Swords and Blades of the American Revolution 6–15, 252–254 (1973)). Indeed, that is precisely the way in which the Second Amendment ’s operative clause furthers the purpose announced in its preface. We therefore read Miller to say only that the Second Amendment does not protect those weapons not typically possessed by law-abiding citizens for lawful purposes, such as short-barreled shotguns.

(emphasis added by me)


While it is true that not all weapons are covered, Scalia's definition is pretty silly.

The legitimate standard is whether the government has a compelling reason to ban a given type of weapon from the general populace.
0 Replies
 
oralloy
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 04:14 pm
@parados,
parados wrote:
So you think I can legally posses Stinger missiles under the 2nd amendment?
And I can also possess a suitcase nuke?


Well, if we could get the government to obey the first half of the Second Amendment and have a militia as they are required to have, if you joined that militia you'd certainly have the right to have Stinger missiles.

What use would a militia have for a suitcase nuke?
0 Replies
 
oralloy
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 04:16 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
wandeljw wrote:
In 1791 there was no understanding concerning the internet. Does this mean that the First Amendment can not be used to decide cases involving the internet?


No, because the speech is the same whichever way it's encoded---sound waves, ink on paper, or IP packets, it doesn't matter.


Exactly.
0 Replies
 
oralloy
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 04:21 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
OmSigDAVID wrote:
I reject your premises. It said n meant "arms" = weapons that can be borne.


Bazookas and flamethrowers can be borne. Just to be clear, are you saying that we the people have a right to personal bazookas and flamethrowers? What additional distinctions besides "bearability" would determine that, if any?

EDIT: Wandel's quote from Heller clarifies it. The distinction is arms typically borne by lawful citizens by lawful purposes.


That is actually a pretty silly distinction.

Use intermediate or strict scrutiny (depending) and determine if there is any reason to ban a type of weapon from the general populace.

Or, for militiamen, use strict scrutiny and determine if there is a compelling reason to prevent militiamen from having such a weapon.
0 Replies
 
oralloy
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 04:26 pm
@parados,
parados wrote:
So then I can possess a suitcase nuke under your interpretation of the US Constitution?


Do you want the suitcase nuke for personal self defense, or for militia-related duties?

(For the sake of argument, we can pretend the government has a militia as they are supposed to have.)

How would a suitcase nuke be of any use in either role?
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 06:43 pm
The United States does have a militia--two, in fact. The organized militia--the National Guard--and the unorganized militia, everybody else. Read about the efficiency of the militia bill, 1903. Just because you are ignorant of something (and you are ignorant of so much) is not evidence that a subject has not been addressed.

More information of which, apparently, you are ignorant.

Quote:
The role of militia, also known as military service and duty, in the United States is complex and has transformed over time. The term militia can be used to describe any number of groups within the United States. Primarily, these fall into:

The organized militia created by the Militia Act of 1903, which split from the 1792 Uniform Militia forces, and consist of State militia forces, notably the National Guard and the Naval Militia. The National Guard however, is not to be confused with the National Guard of the United States, which is a federally recognized reserve military force, although the two are linked.
The reserve militia or unorganized militia, also created by the Militia Act of 1903 which presently consist of every able-bodied man of at least 17 and under 45 years of age who are not members of the National Guard or Naval Militia. (that is, anyone who would be eligible for a draft).
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Fri 16 Mar, 2012 07:00 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
Scalia's problem is that he wants everyone to think that he's being a consistent originalist, even when he's employing a "living constitution" approach that he so frequently derides.

So your point is that Scalia doesn't consistently practice what he preaches. That's fair. My counterpoint is that this doesn't affect the validity of what he preaches.

joefromchicago wrote:
To that end, I don't see how one can be a "principled originalist" while compromising those principles.

By deciding that ones principles are better-served by concrete baby steps towards implementing them than by principled, sweeping, but inconsequential editorials in lonesome dissents---which is what justice Thomas often ends up doing.
 

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