Reply
Wed 31 Dec, 2003 09:26 pm
Context:
An Israeli soldier has been arrested after admitting that he shot in the head a British peace activist, leaving him in a persistent vegetative state.
I think "in the head a British peace activist" means "in the head of a British peace activist". Why could the writer ignore "of"?
It is an awkward construct, Oristar, but it could be make to work, lamely, by inserting commas:
" . . . after admitting that he shot,[/b] in the head,[/b] a British peace activist . . . "
Most native English speakers would not have constructed the sentence in that manner, so this is not an issue of grammar, but of structure, of syntax. I will venture to say that most native English speakers would have written:
" . . . after admitting that he [had] shot a British peace activist in the head . . . "
Strictly speaking, it is a grammatical error not to have used "had" (as i show in the brackets, above), because the act of shooting the activist was prior to the arrest. So, " . . . has been arrested . . ." is a present tense statement which requires a past tense expession of anything to which it is anterior (anything which occurred in the past relative to the arrest), and so, " . . . he had shot a British peace activist . . ."
This is just a badly constructed sentence, which doesn't help you when you are trying to learn the language in which it has been slapped together . . .
That sentence is what the working class Englishman would fondly term "an awkward bastard."
Thanks Setanta, I've been inspired by you very much.
Happy New Year to you and A2K!
A very prosperous and happy New Year to you, Oristar . . .
May I add my Happy New Year wishes to both of you! Setanta explained this one very well, and I don't blame you, oristar, for being confused!
Happy New Year!