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Anyone can explain this sentence for me??

 
 
Nancy88
 
Reply Wed 29 Sep, 2010 06:08 am
As the campaign got underway, public opinion polls gave Nixon the lead. The election appeared to be Nixon's to lose.
What does it mean by "Nixon's to lose"?
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 819 • Replies: 2
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tsarstepan
 
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Reply Wed 29 Sep, 2010 06:11 am
@Nancy88,
When something is said to be someone's to lose it means that those predicting the election believe that that person has such a great chance to win that the only way he or she can lose the election is do something really wrong to sabotage his or her own chances to win.

It also basically implies that Nixon's election opponent could do nothing no matter how positive or effective to take the election from Nixon.
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JTT
 
  0  
Reply Wed 29 Sep, 2010 08:35 am
@Nancy88,
Quote:
Anyone can explain this sentence for me??


Anyone can explain this sentence for me?? isn't a question, Nancy. It carries a meaning something like

"It's so easy; there isn't a person who can't explain this sentence for me".

The question would be written like this.

Can anyone [can] explain this sentence for me??
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