Hey Razz, Well met...
I would appreciate it if you would please try to describe your concept. I assume that I will come off as not making any sense , whatsoever. However, if you have a model, even if it differs from all of these; I would appreciate your trying to formulate it...
As has just been pointed out, it seems I've taken the context a bit off center here; apologies. Alone, this topic asks "When does the past no longer effect the present?" - which is quite open and absolute; and to my mind (without narrowing the question any more), prompts a "never" response. Events, changes, actions, reactions and even thought are built upon what was before
, each new factor altering the original - or previous - object (for each). Looking at it this way; since no "present" exists without a "past" on which to change, alter or effect, logically the answer would be "there is not a present that has not been effected by the past".
But re-reading the original post, the context of that same question gets narrowed to:
... When does Germany's past no long affect the way the world looks at them now?
... which is certainly different; bringing in how human memory (cultural/historical) affects how one views their nation/society.
Thanks, sorry bout that