@joefromchicago,
Dear joefromchicago,
In reply to your post of 6/23/10:
Quote:"Have I violated any of them?"
Yes.
1. You haven't given me the "yes" or "no" I've requested and that, per #2, you agreed to give. Please give it. If you refuse to, you're violating your agreement, again per #2, to be cooperative.
2. In addition, you're on the verge of terminating our exchange using as a test-criterion for error on my part what you find displeasing in what I'm posting rather than using the test-criteria for identifying error that you agreed to limit yourself to in #3. In other words, my error, and the basis for your terminating our discussion, winds up being what you find displeasing.
Quote:"Now, back to your actual position: you haven't replied to my last substantive remarks, so I can only conclude that you agree that, by equating 'perversion' with 'homosexuality,' you object to homosexuals marrying because they're homosexuals. Am I correct?"
I already answered that question in my post to you of 6/22/10: "More accurately, the objection is to making such marriages part of the current cultural institution. If they want to go through a ceremony of their own devising and consider themselves married, I don't object to that."
Basically my answer is yes (note the "yes" answer), but we must make a distinction in California between the word "marriage" a) as what the homosexual couple considers marriage and their being married to be and b) what is recognized/approved as a cultural institution by the community. The same could probably be said of the marriage of bestialists.
In contrast to "b", with which I'm in agreement, I reject but tolerate "a".
Does that answer your question?
Regards,
Jack