@validity,
validity;99774 wrote:
I ask again what philosophy or science states that the universe came from nothing?
Interrupting this train of reasoning, I've postulated in my CA (Causal Argument) thread that Kant's presumption in formulating his first antinomy was/is based on the common definition of nothing that can be found in a household dictionary. Nothing has a practical definition, for our everyday use. Kant also insisted that we throw out the magic wand of so-called common sense in our reasoning about matters that reach beyond the scope of our possible experience (in metaphysics, that is). When we're talking about nothing and the big bang, we have to define the terms; so if the bb was preceded by a zero state like a singularity (with infinite density) the question really should be: Where did this infinite density come from?
It could not have come from nothing.
The Planck time is 10 to the minus 43 seconds. That's the shortest measurement of time in relation to the speed of light that can be measured by the known laws of physics. No smaller measurement is possible. If a zero state of spacetime, which is really oxymoronic, preceded the Planck time, then this infinite density had to have some equal or greater force compelling it to expand; otherwise, it would have just contined to remain what it was.
The argument I've formulated and posted in a separate thread is the only way I can reason out a logical process of cause and effect that accounts for all of this. Physics can't help. The only tool left to us is pure reason (metaphysics). In this regard, Kant's thinking was right, and with his critical philosophy he showed the way towards the only possible solution to such questions.
There's no point in asking Stephen Hawking (the guy in the wheelchair) for the answers. He's an astrophysicist, not a philosopher, and the answers can only come from philosophy. Kant understood this in the 18th century, and he would have known better than to ask Hawking for any advice where this is concerned.
As far as I know, Leibniz is the only mathematician Kant mentions by name, and he didn't have anything positive to say about Leibniz poking his nose around in philosophical matters. Kant denounced Leibniz's philosophical ramblings. Had Leibniz spent more of his time pursuing mathematics, his specialty, and not philosophy, maybe he would have beaten Newton to the punch, and we'd now know that it was Leibniz, not Newton, who invented calculus.
Actually, I've heard from a CAL Tech physicist that Newton beat Leibniz to the publishers by some underhanded maneuvering.