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Socialism (Moved from Grapes of Wrath)

 
 
BrightNoon
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Aug, 2009 05:21 pm
@Zetetic11235,
Zetetic11235;81661 wrote:
Your stance is incoherent here. Drinking and Driving and Drinking and Flying both transcend individual liberty, so that is not a cogent justification for disallowing a ban of either.

Both actions have definite and likely consequences that interfere with the life and liberty of other individuals.


A consequence cannot both be definite and likely. If it can be proven that flying drunk will, in all cases, cause harm to an individual or to the property of an individual, in the same way (with regard to causality) that pointing a gun at someone's head and firing will cause harm, then flying drunk should be a crime. An action which is directly causal of harm, i.e. action which cannot but cause harm, are as criminal as the harm itself. However, flying drunk is not directly causal of harm: i.e. harm does not result from each instance of flyinf drunk without exception. In fact, it's not even very likely, let alone the rule.

If we decide that any action that can potentially (i.e. through circuitous and not direct causation) result in harm to person or property should be prohibited, then we have eliminated any barrier to infinite state interference. What activity could not, by some logic, be claimed to pose a potential threat to someone or someone's property? Smoking in one's own home might cause a fire next door. Rollerskating could cause a traffic accident. Eating a steak could build muscle which later would be critical in a physical assault. You see the point I'm sure. If we abandon the strict standard of clear, direct and demonstrable causation (aiming a gun at someone and firing e.g.) for the abstract standard if potential harm, we in practice eliminate all standards and ackowledge that the state has a right to unlimited interference in all aspects of life in order to prevent this or that problem. For a particularly distopic, but very possible (given recent history) scenario for how this could run amok, think about eugenics. Might it be reasonable to prevent the birth of certain people if the progenitors of those people are shown to have a genetic predilection for violence? Sure, no crime has been commited by the unborn (or unconcieved, in the case of sterilization) person, but his very biology presents a potential threat that can safely be banned; so his existance is banned.

Quote:
If an action puts another person in severe danger, how does one justify its legality through individual liberty?


Again, that depends on what you mean by 'severe danger.' My idea of individual liberty is, in simple terms, that every person should have the right to do whatever they like, so long as that action does not directly harm another person. Potential harm is not of the same kind as actual harm; no people suffer from potential harm. No one sits in the hospital due to the potential harm they suffered in a mugging. No one declares bankrupcty because they were potentially harmed by a con-man. The right of an individual to be free from being harmed by another individual who is free to do what he likes, excepting actions which harm others, is not violated by an act of potential harm. In any case where someone identifies a potential harm, such as flying drunk, and there then accurs an actual harm, the person responsible for that actual harm should be held accountable for that actual harm. There is no need to criminalize actions which are associated with actual harm, but which do not themselves cause actual harm or lead direcly and invariably to actual harm.

More specifically with regard to air travel; a person who voluntarily enters into a contract for service (air transport) has accepted the terms of that contract. If the terms for airfare include the presence of a sober, competent pilot, and such is not forthcoming, then that person can sue the other party for violation of contractual obligations. If actual harm results from this failure on the part of the airline, the passenger can sue in civil court for harms done, or press criminal charges against the party which caused the harm. What he, the person who voluntary enters into a contract for air travel, does not have a right to do is 1) use the state to force the other party (the airline) to change the terms of the contract such that, e.g. pilots are tested before flight (if they don't like the contract, they are free not to enter into it), or 2) use the brute force of the police directly to punish a pilot, who has done him no harm, for doing something that the passenger supposes might have led to harm. An eye for fear of losing an eye? That is injustice and, as noted already, sets a very dangerous precedent for the expansion of state power into the regulation of private habits and issues.

Quote:
Drinking might be perfectly fine, so might be any sort of isolated intoxication, but once a person has put others at risk he has stepped beyond the bounds of individual liberty and must be restricted. Any such restriction would be just.


I believe I've already dealt with this. An individual does not have the right to be free from the risk of harm, but rather to be free from harm itself.

Quote:
I would also say that liability can be shifted back to the airline if it is mandatory that they test each pilot before they board, so that any resultant loss of life or limb due to the transgression of the pilot falls back on them.


Or, if the government did nothing, the airlines which failed to test pilots could be held liable in civil court when the inevitable class action suit arrived in the wake of a crash. They would be shredded financially and the others would soon learn from their example and reform, or soon go bankrupt.

Quote:
Furthermore; a similar principal goes for the guy waving a hand grenade. Hazardous action, henceforth referring to actions that endanger others unwillingly or unwittingly, should not be tolerated and cannot be justified by means of individual liberty.


Again, the same. Potential harm is not actual harm. An individual has no right to be free form potential harm and anything could be be defined as potentil harm: i.e. everything could be banned or regulated. This is not a world I want to live in, it's not a just world, not a free world.
Zetetic11235
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Aug, 2009 06:57 pm
@BrightNoon,
First of all, I never said that a consequence could be both likely and definite, I said that actions have likely and definite consequences. They have consequences that are likely and consequences that are definite. In actuality they have have no definite consequences, but this is not a thread on metaphysics. I certainly understand your views and by and large agree with you.

I would have to also say to the hand grenade situation would probably simply be diffused if the property was private, such as in a mall. They could force him to leave as he would be directly interfering with business. If all property were private, this would always be the case(though of course property is not all private in the Libertarian framework). I recognize, however, that in practice there are rarely absolutes so long as the people are keen enough (or sometimes dull enough) to guard themselves against them adaptively. Unfortunately, people do not do this so the only recourse is a balancing of powers that allows for the people to come out ahead.


I would like to play devil's advocate again later, I will take up Utilitarianism (a view which I used to endorse) when I have more time to put into the debate.

One last comment, I would not have something as weak as 'potential harm', I would have a (admittedly subjectively) devised system for risk analysis.
BrightNoon
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Aug, 2009 07:32 pm
@Zetetic11235,
I agree with you that the construction 'potential harm' is rather weak. I'm sure we can agree that actions which are per se harmful (e.g. putting a knife in someone's chest) are clearly worthy of prohibition. And I'm sure we could agree that actions that lead invariably to harm are worthy of prohibition. Those and actions which per se are harmful we could together refer to as 'direct threats' for the sake of argument. Outside of this category, there are only potential harms. The issue is what degree of causal certainty is required to rule something a direct threat, as opposed to a potential harm. If we don't make a clear distinction between the two, we risk allowing a rube goldberg machine style causation to be used as evidence that some action, far removed from the actual harm, should be prohibited. For a silly example: I'm driving in the car with the friend, I ask her for a stick of gum, in looking for the stick of gum, she crashes the cars and subsequently dies. Am I responsible? Did my action constitute a direct threat? Obviously no one would argue that it did, but you see our problem.

There is no way to define what is a direct threat by setting a standard based on a certain number of causal interactions between the action and the negative consequence, as there are potentially infifite such interactions, depending on the perspetive from which the sequence of events is viewed, what counts as a distinct object or action in that sequence, etc. As you said, this isn't a metaphysical debate. So, I think we can agree that the standard (for what constitutes sufficiently direct causal relation between an action and a harm to justifiably prohibit that action and label it a direct threat) must either be arbitrary or based on absolute, unwavering correlation (between the action and the harm).

There's not much to gain talking about what's arbitrary, so I'll deal with the other option. A few examples first:

A pilot who flies drunk AND crashing (not 100% correlation)

A person aiming a gun at someone and pulling the trigger AND bodily harm (100% correlation)

In these cases, the action in question is the first phrase before the 'AND.' That is what would be banned. Alll the harms are cirminal when caused by another person. The issue is whether the actions 'caused' these harms by our standard for 'caused.' Just to reiterate, I'm not suggesting that a pilot should not be held accountable/punished for crashing a plane due to negligence of some kind. I'm suggesting that he should not be held accounting/punished for merely flying a plane drunk and increasing the risk that he will cause harm.

This formula works for me, but maybe I haven't thought of an important counter-example. If anyone has any, let's here it.
EmperorNero
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Aug, 2009 12:22 pm
@xris,
salima;81536 wrote:
here's another interesting take on the issue-if a driver kills someone in india, drunk or not, he has to run like hell before a crowd gathers and beats the daylights out of him, possibly killing him. and instead of malpractice insurance, when a patient dies, if there was any appearance of negligence, the family gets together and attacks the hospital staff, setting ambulances on fire, etc. there are all kinds of ways of setting limits without giving up freedom.


I don't favor vigilante justice. You may be in favor of people punishing what they think is wrong until you learn what those crazypeople out there think is wrong.

xris;81549 wrote:
In the US with relaxed gun laws, death by shootings is ten times higher than the uk,now does that not prove a certain point?


Not to get too far into the gun control issue, but that doesn't really prove a lot.
You can't copy the UK gun situation to the US where guns are widely available illegally.
Banning guns in the US only applies to those who don't follow the law. In other words it disarms the victims.
xris
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Aug, 2009 12:31 pm
@EmperorNero,
Not to get tooo far into the debate:perplexed:well whose killing who in America then, the victims? Not controlling arms in America is not exactly helping those you seek to help. The majority of killings are by family members in conflict where it would only have been a minor affair if a gun had not been available.
Strangers killing you is a rarity,its your nearest and dearest thats more likely to blow your brains out..
EmperorNero
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Aug, 2009 02:08 pm
@xris,
xris;81930 wrote:
Not to get tooo far into the debate:perplexed:well whose killing who in America then, the victims? Not controlling arms in America is not exactly helping those you seek to help. The majority of killings are by family members in conflict where it would only have been a minor affair if a gun had not been available.
Strangers killing you is a rarity,its your nearest and dearest thats more likely to blow your brains out..


Yes, the majority of killings maybe. You are leaving out that you don't have to kill someone to protect yourself with a gun, often you don't even have to fire the gun.
xris
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Aug, 2009 02:21 pm
@EmperorNero,
EmperorNero;81937 wrote:
Yes, the majority of killings maybe. You are leaving out that you don't have to kill someone to protect yourself with a gun, often you don't even have to fire the gun.
So whats your argument? we dont have guns here and our death by shootings is ten times less.If holding guns increases the risk of being shot, by statistics are you saying Americans are in the main homicidal maniacs?I dont think you can win this one my friend...
EmperorNero
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Aug, 2009 03:54 pm
@xris,
xris;81940 wrote:
So whats your argument? we dont have guns here and our death by shootings is ten times less.If holding guns increases the risk of being shot, by statistics are you saying Americans are in the main homicidal maniacs?I dont think you can win this one my friend...


You can't copy that to the US where guns are widely available illegally.
In the UK, not even criminals can get guns.
In the UK the secondary market is drained after decades of gun control where geography allows that to be effective.
The US has a thousand mile long open border with the third world, if gun control works and illegal demand rises guns will just be imported illegally as drugs are now.

Not to mention you gave up those freedoms.
BrightNoon
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Aug, 2009 05:55 pm
@EmperorNero,
The right of individuals to keep and bear arms was intended to be another, the ultimate, protection against tyrannical government. But I guess that doesn't apply in the UK. Banning guns there hasn't coincided with increasingly oppressive goverernment. It's not like people are surveilled all the time now, or stopped and searched on the street for taking pictures, or handed over to special terrorism courts with no right to due process for sending documentaries to government officials. O wait...:sarcastic:
0 Replies
 
xris
 
  1  
Reply Sun 9 Aug, 2009 08:59 am
@EmperorNero,
EmperorNero;81947 wrote:
You can't copy that to the US where guns are widely available illegally.
In the UK, not even criminals can get guns.
In the UK the secondary market is drained after decades of gun control where geography allows that to be effective.
The US has a thousand mile long open border with the third world, if gun control works and illegal demand rises guns will just be imported illegally as drugs are now.

Not to mention you gave up those freedoms.
We gave up the freedom for nutters to carry guns.I can agree that you might have job changing your laws but thats not the debate,is it?

---------- Post added 08-09-2009 at 10:02 AM ----------

BrightNoon;81961 wrote:
The right of individuals to keep and bear arms was intended to be another, the ultimate, protection against tyrannical government. But I guess that doesn't apply in the UK. Banning guns there hasn't coincided with increasingly oppressive goverernment. It's not like people are surveilled all the time now, or stopped and searched on the street for taking pictures, or handed over to special terrorism courts with no right to due process for sending documentaries to government officials. O wait...:sarcastic:
If you think carrying a colt 45 is going to make your government think about personal freedoms, ide just look at your torture record and prohibition,if i where you.
EmperorNero
 
  1  
Reply Sun 9 Aug, 2009 12:08 pm
@xris,
xris;82084 wrote:
If you think carrying a colt 45 is going to make your government think about personal freedoms, ide just look at your torture record and prohibition,if i where you.


The US torture record is quite friendly compared to the British.

But the point is that you are willing to give up freedom for safety as those people in 1984.
Zetetic11235
 
  1  
Reply Sun 9 Aug, 2009 12:47 pm
@BrightNoon,
BrightNoon;81682 wrote:

In these cases, the action in question is the first phrase before the 'AND.' That is what would be banned. Alll the harms are cirminal when caused by another person. The issue is whether the actions 'caused' these harms by our standard for 'caused.' Just to reiterate, I'm not suggesting that a pilot should not be held accountable/punished for crashing a plane due to negligence of some kind. I'm suggesting that he should not be held accounting/punished for merely flying a plane drunk and increasing the risk that he will cause harm.

This formula works for me, but maybe I haven't thought of an important counter-example. If anyone has any, let's here it.


How do you work around 'psychological harm' and 'emotional damage'? For instance, a man exposing himself to a child and similar behavior would generally legitimize those aspects of harm. Then one could simply claim that the man waving the grenade and threatening to blow up the building is causing psychological harm to those in the building. Is it not the case that this could just as easily be exploited? What do you propose as a solution?
xris
 
  1  
Reply Sun 9 Aug, 2009 01:15 pm
@EmperorNero,
EmperorNero;82114 wrote:
The US torture record is quite friendly compared to the British.

But the point is that you are willing to give up freedom for safety as those people in 1984.
I am not giving up anything, i have no desire to carry a gun under any civilian circumstances.If my government is becoming rogue or imprisons me unfairly, my carrying a silly pistol wont change their mind.It has been proven, you are more likely to be shot when in possession of a fire arm than without.Why not let your citizens carry nuclear warheads if you think a deterrent works.
There is no excuse in any one having the need to arm himself,save for protection in the wilderness from wild creatures.As the most dangerous animal in my garden is a badger an air rifle is sufficient.
When in the last ten years have we tortured more than the U.S?
BrightNoon
 
  1  
Reply Sun 9 Aug, 2009 01:15 pm
@Zetetic11235,
The standard for psychological harm must be arbitrary. There are some instances, such as as a man exposing himself to a child, that are obviously legitimate. Others are not. The right to be free from psychological harm is not compatible with the right to free speech, among other basic rights. For example, should it be a crime for a man to say that he supports gay rights within earshot of an extremely homophobic person who thereafter spends a month in deep depression? Should it be illegal for a man to offer to sell his old, mistreated classic car to a pedantic classic car enthusiast, who, upon seeing the condition of the car, breaks down in tears and ends up in a mental institution? Obviously not. I think the best standard for psychological harm would be one that rests on intention; did the seller want to cause a mental breakdow? If so, and he in fact does cause that harm, then it should be a crime. Obviously this would be a difficult thing to prosecute, but it could be done. Still there are exceptions. The man who exposes himself to the little girl may not have any malicious intent at all, but we all recognize that he should be punished for what we call his crime. Why? Arbitrary tradition. And that may be all the further we can go in systematizing 'psychological harm.'

Thoughts?
Zetetic11235
 
  1  
Reply Sun 9 Aug, 2009 02:40 pm
@BrightNoon,
I disagree that the accidental exposure should be punished. Consider this: Your pants get caught on something in a crowded place and you are subsequently depantsed. A silly situation, but it could still be legally considered indecent exposure without an intent clause in place.

Here are three questions for you:

1)If the man with the grenade has as his intention to cause a stampede and in fact does so and someone is trampled to death in the process, should he be held responsible?

2)What if his purpose is to 'freak people out' and he causes a war veteran to go crazy?

3)What if he makes a threat and someone fearing their life kills him, are they justified in doing so?
BrightNoon
 
  1  
Reply Sun 9 Aug, 2009 04:21 pm
@Zetetic11235,
First, when I referred to the man who exposes himself to a little girl with no 'malicious intent,' I didn't mean that he exposed himself accidentally. I meant that perhaps he thought the little girl would like it, or that he was providing education, etc. He intended to expose himself, he just didn't intend to cause mental harm.

To deal with your examples:

1. Yes he should. This is similiar to shouting fire in a crowded theatre. He intended to do, and in fact, did something which led directly to harm.

2. The same.

3. If he actually makes a threat of violence, that's a crime in itself. Whether or not the other person is justified in killing him is another matter. He would certainly be justified in defending himself, the question is whether or not lethal force was warranted to do that, and the answer to that question depends on the details of the case I would think.

EDIT: the main issue with 1 and 2 is intent. The fact that intent is hard to prove is both a problem and an advantage. It provides a basis for prosecution, but limits the effectiveness of it. That the quality of evidence has to be so high to prove intent ensures that truly innocent people will be protected from abuse on the part of overzealous officials.
0 Replies
 
EmperorNero
 
  1  
Reply Tue 11 Aug, 2009 04:33 pm
@xris,
xris;82124 wrote:
I am not giving up anything, i have no desire to carry a gun under any civilian circumstances.If my government is becoming rogue or imprisons me unfairly, my carrying a silly pistol wont change their mind.It has been proven, you are more likely to be shot when in possession of a fire arm than without.Why not let your citizens carry nuclear warheads if you think a deterrent works.
There is no excuse in any one having the need to arm himself,save for protection in the wilderness from wild creatures.As the most dangerous animal in my garden is a badger an air rifle is sufficient.
When in the last ten years have we tortured more than the U.S?


A government surveillance camera in every home would reduce crime more than gun control ever can.
I take it you are in favor of that as well?
RDRDRD1
 
  1  
Reply Tue 11 Aug, 2009 05:33 pm
@EmperorNero,
Brightnoon, let's revisit the drunk pilot example. Your analysis is flawed in that it utterly ignores his passengers and the pilot's responsibility to them and for their well-being. What right does he have to fly drunk without their informed consent? Perhaps that's the answer. If he wishes to avoid prosecution, he should parade up and down the aisles getting passengers to sign consent forms. The only reason he's flying in the first place is his plainly implied agreement to operate the aircraft to the very best of his ability, that means sober. His pilot's licence is not given as of right. It is a privilege. He has no right to fly at all save in accordance with the terms under which he is given the privilege and, pursuant to those terms, he consents to prosecution for their breach.

---------- Post added 08-11-2009 at 04:43 PM ----------

Zetetic, your questions.

1. Whether he intends to cause the stampede in which an innocent is killed is irrelevant. Waving a grenade about is an illegal act and the stampede death, even if not intended, is foreseeable. In our Common Law, we're all deemed to intend the logical and foreseeable consequences of our acts.

2. No, there are fairly clear limits on criminal liability for outcomes caused purely by influences on the mind of another. It's a fascinating area but I doubt anyone wants twelve or twenty pages of explanation.

3. The threat of physical harm or death, coupled with the means to do that, are adequate to give rise to the right of self-defence. The mere threatening of physical harm in these circumstances is the crime of assault. If you pull a gun on a police officer would he be condemned for killing you in self-defence? Of course not.
xris
 
  1  
Reply Wed 12 Aug, 2009 02:37 am
@EmperorNero,
EmperorNero;82630 wrote:
A government surveillance camera in every home would reduce crime more than gun control ever can.
I take it you are in favor of that as well?
Why should i be in favour of that?How can you relate gun control with intrusion.
RDRDRD1
 
  1  
Reply Wed 12 Aug, 2009 05:33 am
@EmperorNero,
Xris, Nero also misses the point that we're already far more heavily surveilled than ever before, particularly urban dwellers. Those devices do appear to work marginally well but only in some circumstances. Unless a gunman pulls his concealed weapon and then, instead of using it to fire rounds into a victim, turns it into a club and begins the lengthy process of bludgeoning passersby, a vast network of surveillance cameras won't make much difference to the result save, perhaps, for the apprehension of the gunman.

---------- Post added 08-12-2009 at 04:38 AM ----------

And Brightnoon, on your "flasher" question, the law deems the man to intend to harm the young girl to whom he exposes himself. We are deemed to intend the logically foreseeable consequences of our acts. That's a baseline principle. Without it there would be no civilization. Is it logical that the girl could be traumatized by the exposure? Of course. Is or ought that to be foreseeable by the flasher? Unquestionably. The crime is established.
0 Replies
 
 

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