0
   

A perfect god can not exist?

 
 
Extrain
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 04:56 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;156900 wrote:
No, it's not a contradiction because I am believing different things about two different people, myself and Hitler.


A belief about Hitler is a different belief than a belief about anything else, sure. But "wrong" takes on the same cognitive significance when a person talks about both frameworks, simply because "wrong" only has the one meaning given to it within his own framework. So he can't consistently talk about "killing innocent Jews being not-wrong" within Hitler's framework simply because he is not in Hitler's framework. He is talking from within his own framework. Talking about different word-meanings of other linguistic frameworks, while being within one's own linguistic framework, is not even possible to do. So he is literally contradicting himself when he tries to talk about things outside his own linguistic framework.

MMR is self-refuting.
Night Ripper
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 05:13 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;156903 wrote:
So he can't consistently talk about "killing innocent Jews being not-wrong" within Hitler's framework simply because he is not in Hitler's framework. He is talking from within his own framework.


I thought that was the motivation of relativism, the recognition that there is not just one framework but many and each just as valid as any other. To be sure, I am not in Hitler's framework, I am in my own but that doesn't prevent me from recognizing that my framework is not the only framework.
Extrain
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 05:21 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;156907 wrote:
I thought that was the motivation of relativism, the recognition that there is not just one framework but many and each just as valid as any other. To be sure, I am not in Hitler's framework, I am in my own but that doesn't prevent me from recognizing that my framework is not the only framework.


CR is not the same thesis as MMR. CR is just a descriptive thesis that people have different moral beliefs across cultures--and this CAN be meaningfully talked about--and it is true across all cultural contexts. But MMR says that what cultures believe with respect to what is right and wrong is a moral fact, since it expicitly holds that what is really right and wrong is true relative to that culture (hence the alleged "objectivity" thesis it claims to be). Right/wrong are objective terms just as true/false are objective terms for the MMRist. So MMR is a self-refuting thesis.
Night Ripper
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 06:01 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;156908 wrote:
CR is not the same thesis as MMR. CR is just a descriptive thesis that people have different moral beliefs across cultures--and this CAN be meaningfully talked about--and it is true across all cultural contexts. But MMR says that what cultures believe with respect to what is right and wrong is a moral fact, since it expicitly holds that what is really right and wrong is true relative to that culture (hence the alleged "objectivity" thesis it claims to be). Right/wrong are objective terms just as true/false are objective terms for the MMRist. So MMR is a self-refuting thesis.


That's what I'm talking about. I don't believe it by the way. I'm just playing devil's advocate because I don't buy your argument.

If "ice cream tastes good" is true for me and "ice creams tastes good" false for you then so can "murder is wrong" be true for me and "murder is wrong" false for you.
Extrain
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 07:21 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;156920 wrote:
If "ice cream tastes good" is true for me and "ice creams tastes good" false for you then so can "murder is wrong" be true for me and "murder is wrong" false for you.


Ignore right/wrong. What you just said about "truth" is still the relativist fallacy again. Non-cognitivism doesn't even hold what you just said.

If "ice cream tastes good to you" is true, then that proposition is also "true to me." It is objectively true to everyone whether they know it or not, because it is an objective fact that ice cream tastes good to you. If I said, "ice cream tastes bad to you" I would be saying something false.
Night Ripper
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 08:13 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;156935 wrote:
Ignore right/wrong. What you just said about "truth" is still the relativist fallacy again. Non-cognitivism doesn't even hold what you just said.

If "ice cream tastes good to you" is true, then that proposition is also "true to me." It is objectively true to everyone whether they know it or not, because it is an objective fact that ice cream tastes good to you. If I said, "ice cream tastes bad to you" I would be saying something false.


I don't say "ice cream tastes good to me". I say "ice cream tastes good" and it does. I taste it and it is good. That is what tasting good means. Therefore "ice cream tastes good" is true for me.
Extrain
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 08:35 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;156953 wrote:
I don't say "ice cream tastes good to me". I say "ice cream tastes good" and it does. I taste it and it is good. That is what tasting good means. Therefore "ice cream tastes good" is true for me.


Sorry, that's invalid.

Only the logically and philosophically uneducated say stuff like that. Non-cognitivists don't even say it. I don't even know what "true for you" means.

"Ice cream tastes good to you" is certainly true--when "you" is referring to you.
"Ice cream tastes good to me" is certainly true--when "me" is referring to you.
But how is "Ice cream tastes good is true for you" true? That doesn't make sense because now you are using two different senses of "true" for which logic would slap you.

Keep it simple and say "Ice cream tastes good to me" is true.
Night Ripper
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 08:46 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;156961 wrote:
Sorry, that's invalid.

Only the logically and philosophically uneducated say stuff like that. Non-cognitivists don't even say it. I don't even know what "true for you" means.


I have undergraduate credits from Oxford for philosophy, do you?

Ice cream tastes good.
Extrain
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Apr, 2010 08:52 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;156963 wrote:
I have undergraduate credits from Oxford for philosophy, do you?

Ice cream tastes good.


You need to go back school, then, because what you are saying is a logical fallacy. I have a BA in philosophy, and am finishing up my MA in philosophy, and NO philosopher endorses what you just said because it presupposes a private language to which no one has access but you. In fact, analytic philosophy departments throughout the the States have been forced to put together committees to address this rampantly stupid kind of "what is true for me, is not true for you" talk coming from undergraduate non-philosophers. I suggest you get with the program. No philosopher understands what you just said because it is semantically and logically convoluted.

"Ice cream tastes good" is simply truth-valueless without referencing to whom the ice-cream is tasting good.
"I like ice cream," on the other hand, does have a truth value because "I" is referring to the person uttering the statement as in John saying, "I like ice cream"--so, obviously, John likes ice-cream.

"Ice cream tastes good to you" is certainly true--when "you" is referring to you.
"Ice cream tastes good to me" is certainly true--when "me" is referring to you.
But how is "Ice cream tastes good is true for you" true? That doesn't make sense because now you are using two different senses of "true" for which logic would slap you. How can "ice cream tastes good" even be true?? There is no person referenced in this statement who is tasting ice cream.

Keep it simple and say "'Ice cream tastes good to me' is true." Or, "I like ice cream." That you like ice cream is true. But your state-of-mind of liking-ice cream is not true or false. So that ice cream tastes good doesn't even have a truth value because it is not referencing anybody who is tasting ice cream. Tasting, liking, disliking, preferencing, hating, loving, feeling, etc. are subjective states of mind, and reports about a person undergoing those states are true or false, but the states of mind themselves are not true or false. That's like saying the state of mind "pleasurable-tasting-of-ice-cream" is true, or, the rock itself, the sky itself, the state-of-mind itself, are all true--it doesn't even make sense.
Night Ripper
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 06:58 am
@Extrain,
A logical fallacy? How? That doesn't even make sense. I'm also not endorsing a private language. You haven't even explained why you think that but rather just state it like it's an obvious fact. That's not how you win arguments. You're also being more and more insulting for no reason other than you lack patience to deal with this topic. You say weird things that don't make any sense yet you claim I'm the one that doesn't know what he's talking about.

You can't have it both ways. Either I can say "ice cream tastes good" and it either be true or false, or I can say "ice cream tastes good to me" and "ice cream tastes good to you" and have those either be true or false. Either way you pick, doesn't matter. I can still say "ice cream tastes good" and it be true or I can say "ice cream tastes good to me" and have it be true which means I can also say "ice cream tastes good to you" and have it be true or false.
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 07:05 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;156961 wrote:
Sorry, that's invalid.

Only the logically and philosophically uneducated say stuff like that. Non-cognitivists don't even say it. I don't even know what "true for you" means.

.


" P is True for X" is ambiguous. It can mean:

1. X believes that P is true. or,
2. P is true in the case of X. ("Milk is good food may be true for you and most people, but it is not true for me, since I have lactose intolerance and it makes me ill")
Night Ripper
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 07:13 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;157046 wrote:
" P is True for X" is ambiguous. It can mean:

1. X believes that P is true. or,
2. P is true in the case of X. ("Milk is good food may be true for you and most people, but it is not true for me, since I have lactose intolerance and it makes me ill")


Since we are talking about relativism it should be obvious that (2) was what I meant.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 07:18 am
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;157050 wrote:
Since we are talking about relativism it should be obvious that (2) was what I meant.


Yes. I would have thought so.
pagan
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 09:13 am
@kennethamy,
truth to me is a language statement that attempts to describe reality. Reality generally is not truth, ie a language s tatement. but it can be.

I believe reality exists, but i don't generally (see later) believe that the truth exists. The reason being that 'the truth' would require a complete language description of reality. Further it would probably require 'the language' to describe it. But since reality is generally not language, then language cannot give a complete description of reality because language is only a small part of reality.

Further language is also cultural. Every culture and language teaches a perspective.

I believe in truth. That is, useful yet incomplete language descriptions of reality, which are also cultural. Something does not have to be complete or perfect to be useful. Nor complete and perfect to have truth. And since all languages are perspective, therefore truths (truth statements in that language) are perspective. Relative to it.

This does not mean that every culture and language has a totally unique set of exclusive truths. Many truths are shared between different languages and cultures. Different perspectives. And further any complex language and culture is bound to hold many conflicting truths and beliefs within it.

The truth is often confused with reality. ie the description is confused with that which it describes. Objectivists often claim this. They claim that theirs is 'the culture' and 'the language' to reveal 'the truth', which is almost equivalent to reality. In fact in the case of info realism, where all is information, then a truth can potentially be equivalent to the reality it describes.

A classic objective culture and language is science. To a relativist it is very useful, despite its incompleteness, despite its very particular perspective. A relativist could point out that science has made nothing but a succession of false statements, since it is forever revising its statements. This is an argument against objectivism as the gateway to 'the truth', since it requires faith in the face of a string of falsehoods eventually revealing the truth. However, this should not be confused with a rejection of objectivism as a useful perspective to express truths about reality.

many objectivists counter that in order to say something is true then we have to believe in the truth. We strive for it. My first reaction to this is, yes granted. But that just shows the useful of adopting the belief in the truth while we wrestle with difficulties in understanding reality. Having thought and felt about it, we click out of that mode, and return to relativism. To an objectivist this is a logical contradiction, and within the objectivist perspective i would agree. But outside it we recognise the belief in 'the truth' as a useful temporary perspective. This does not provide a contradiction in relativism, since even a belief in 'the truth' is a useful perspective, along with other perspectives that reveal truth that to a relativist objectivity cannot provide. In fact in some situations the rejection of 'the truth' existing is also a very useful perspective for revealing truth.

The passionate objectivist however often takes this rejection of 'the truth' as a complete rejection of truth on the one hand, and further a rejection of even the usefulness of believing 'the truth exists on the other. A relativist is liable to spot that passion, enter the objectivist narrative, see where that disagreement comes from, agree (within the imagined perspective of complete objectivity), .... and then return to the relativist perspective much the wiser.
Extrain
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 10:19 am
@pagan,
Night Ripper;157044 wrote:
A logical fallacy? How? That doesn't even make sense. I'm also not endorsing a private language. You haven't even explained why you think that but rather just state it like it's an obvious fact. That's not how you win arguments. You're also being more and more insulting for no reason other than you lack patience to deal with this topic. You say weird things that don't make any sense yet you claim I'm the one that doesn't know what he's talking about.


Quote:
You can't have it both ways. Either I can say "ice cream tastes good" and it either be true or false, or I can say "ice cream tastes good to me" and "ice cream tastes good to you" and have those either be true or false. Either way you pick, doesn't matter. I can still say "ice cream tastes good" and it be true or I can say "ice cream tastes good to me" and have it be true which means I can also say "ice cream tastes good to you" and have it be true or false.


I've been offering arguments the entire time. Where are yours? No one takes "what is true for me may not be true for you" seriously because it is self-refuting, not to mention makes a logical/linguistic mess. If what is true is true relative to your framework, then it is also true relative to mine. If "milk is good is true relative to your framework" is true relative to your framework, then "milk is good is true relative to your framework" is true relative to mine as well. After all, I am entertaining "what is true for you" from my perspective as well, am I not????

If milk is good is true in one framework it can also be true in another. So "Milk is good" can be true for Bob. "Milk is good" can also be true for Bill. So "truth" is not a relative to frameworks. It is a an objective property of shared propositions. Immediately your view is refuted. Even if you are lactose intolerant, "milk is good" is still true independent of whether it is really good for YOU, because it can be good for Bob and Bill. So "good," in the sense being used here, is relative, truth is not relative. So milk is good for Bob is true. And milk is not good for Ken is true. But it's stupid to say "milk is good is true for bob and not true for Ken."

Question: can you explain to me how,

"Milk is good is true relative to your framework" is true? You can't,--because now you have two notions of truth. One objective, one subjective. So your view that truth is relative to a framework is self-refuting! Why do you think I posted SEP's take on the relativist fallacy earlier?:

"The relativist fallacy, also known as the subjectivist fallacy, is a fallacy committed, roughly speaking, when one person claims that something may be true for one person but not true for someone else. "

Relativist fallacy - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Truth-relativism fallacy. Relativism (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy):

Quote:
Truth is a major flash point in discussions of relativism. The traditional indictment of the strong version of truth-value relativism is that it is self-refuting. The claim that truth is relative is, by the relativist's own lights, only true relative to some frameworks and it may be false relative to others. Hence, it is argued, the relativist cannot account for the status of his own claims.

5.9.1 Complete Metastasis

Weak truth-value relativism escapes many of the dangers of self-refutation, since it does not allow one and the same thing to be true in one framework and false in another. But if normative truth-value relativism is intended as a view that is true simpliciter, it metastasizes very quickly. Suppose, for the sake of argument, that truth is relative to a person's (or group's) conceptual framework (for ease of exposition we consider individuals, but the point generalizes easily). Then, the relativist tells us, the very same belief (or sentence), call it p, can be true in Wilbur's framework, W, but false in Sam's framework, S. But if truth is relative in the strong sense, it can also be true in Wilbur's framework W that p is true in W and false in Sam's framework S that p is true in Wilbur's framework W. There is not even any objective fact about what is true in any given framework.
Worse is in store. There could be frameworks in which it is true that Wilbur's current belief has the content that grass is green and other frameworks in which his belief has the content that snow is white. There could be frameworks in which it is true that Wilbur's framework is W and other frameworks in which it is false that Wilbur's framework is W, and so there is no objective fact about what framework anyone has. Furthermore, it may be true in Wilbur's framework that the frameworks W and S are identical (W = S) but true in Sam's framework that W and S are distinct (WS). It may also be true in Wilbur's framework that W itself is a framework and true in Sam's that W is not a framework. It may be true in Sam's framework that there are no frameworks, or that everything is true in every framework, or that nothing is true in any. It may also be true in some frameworks (e.g., ones without concepts of physical objects or persons) that Wilbur and Sam do not exist.
In short, there is no fact about whether there are frameworks, about what frameworks are, about what is true in any particular framework, about what framework anyone has, about what anyone even thinks his own framework is like, or about anything else. It is quicksand all the way down. The metastasis is total. The meltdown is complete.
5.9.2 Damage Control

There seem to be only three hopes for escape.
1. Exemptions?

Champions of relative truth often find it tempting to suppose that their thesis of strong truth-value relativism (perhaps along with a few other things that go along with it) is true in some absolute sense. The doctrine of relative truth is somehow exempt. But why go just this far and no further? No one has ever given any argument that would begin to support the case for such exemptions, and the prospects are dim, because such a strategy is in considerable tension with the general pictures that lead to strong truth-value relativism in the first place.
2. Other Defenses of the Relativist's Framework

The relativist might urge that frameworks in which truth is relative are superior in some way to frameworks in which it is not, then urge that this difference gives us a reason to accept his framework, and with it the thesis of strong truth-value relativism. But the relativist's framework cannot be superior by virtue of containing the truth about relativism (or about anything else) since, according to his view, all truth is relative. Nor is it clear how the relativist's framework could be better justified than the non-relativist's. Among other things, justified beliefs are ones that track truth in some way, and if truth is relative, justification is likely to turn out relative as well. Indeed, the arguments to support the claim that truth is relative in the strong sense are very likely to support the claim that justification is relative as well. The problem is that no one has yet found any good reasons why the relativist's framework should command our allegiance, while his opponent's framework should not.
3. Taking a Stand

The relativist's best hope is to admit that he inhabits a framework and can only speak from within it. He can even acknowledge that his claims are only true relative to it. Still, it's his and his claim is important in it.
It's us, not just me

This strategy will be more compelling if the relativist can convince his interlocutors that their--seemingly objective--concepts and beliefs in fact presuppose the same framework as the relativist's and that the doctrine of relative truth is true in the framework they all share. It's not just that his claim is true in his idiosyncratic framework, but that it's true in the framework that we also inhabit. If the relativist could make such a view plausible, he could then add that his claims are no worse off than most of the other things we hold to be true. In short, The realist's or objectivist's seemingly objective concepts and beliefs presuppose the same framework as the relativist's, and truth is relative in it. And if relativism's claims are as secure as the myriad claims that are on solid ground for us normally, what more can we say? Indeed, the relativist might even attempt to expropriate one response to relativism and argue that frameworks in which his thesis is false are not live options for us.
The project of showing the objectivist that her beliefs depend on a common framework of concepts, standards, and beliefs and that relativism is reasonable according to them would not be easy; in effect it would involve the various sorts of arguments and counterarguments that have surfaced throughout this entry. Furthermore, even if the relativist succeeded, his view would still be at best relatively true. Whether such a position is at all defensible is a matter of debate, but at this juncture things have become more complicated than the simpler versions of Plato's refutation might suggest.
Culture Shock: Non-trivial Differences

The claim that truth is relative in the strong sense does indeed subvert itself, but this doesn't mean that there couldn't be genuine and interesting differences among groups that could quite reasonably be called relativistic. What it does mean is that if these views are to be developed in an interesting way, we must find a way to dissociate them from the strong version of truth-value relativism.


---------- Post added 04-27-2010 at 10:21 AM ----------

kennethamy;157046 wrote:
" P is True for X" is ambiguous. It can mean:

1. X believes that P is true. or,
2. P is true in the case of X. ("Milk is good food may be true for you and most people, but it is not true for me, since I have lactose intolerance and it makes me ill")


But (2) just means that "milk is not good for ken" and "milk is good for some other people." P is a proposition, and the variable X are persons and states of affairs, not other propositions. It doesn't mean "milk is good is true for you" and "milk is good is true for some other people". After all, if truth is relative, how do you explain the truth of the proposition: "milk is good is true relative to some frameworks but not others" is true? You can't, because now there are two senses of "truth" you are using. So your meta-view that truth can even be relative to frameworks undermines itself. You are merely presupposing it can be, and as soon as you do, this presupposition undercuts your very own view that truth is relative.

So,

3. "P is true for x" means nothing at all--it is self-refuting.

Read the SEP above.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 11:39 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;157122 wrote:
I've been offering arguments the entire time. Where are yours? No one takes "what is true for me may not be true for you" seriously because it is self-refuting, not to mention makes a logical/linguistic mess. If what is true is true relative to your framework, then it is also true relative to mine. If "milk is good is true relative to your framework" is true relative to your framework, then "milk is good is true relative to your framework" is true relative to mine as well. After all, I am entertaining "what is true for you" from my perspective as well, am I not????

If milk is good is true in one framework it can also be true in another. So "Milk is good" can be true for Bob. "Milk is good" can also be true for Bill. So "truth" is not a relative to frameworks. It is a an objective property of shared propositions. Immediately your view is refuted. Even if you are lactose intolerant, "milk is good" is still true independent of whether it is really good for YOU, because it can be good for Bob and Bill. So "good," in the sense being used here, is relative, truth is not relative. So milk is good for Bob is true. And milk is not good for Ken is true. But it's stupid to say "milk is good is true for bob and not true for Ken."

Question: can you explain to me how,

"Milk is good is true relative to your framework" is true? You can't,--because now you have two notions of truth. One objective, one subjective. So your view that truth is relative to a framework is self-refuting! Why do you think I posted SEP's take on the relativist fallacy earlier?:

"The relativist fallacy, also known as the subjectivist fallacy, is a fallacy committed, roughly speaking, when one person claims that something may be true for one person but not true for someone else. "

Relativist fallacy - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Truth-relativism fallacy. Relativism (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy):



---------- Post added 04-27-2010 at 10:21 AM ----------



But (2) just means that "milk is not good for ken" and "milk is good for some other people." P is a proposition, and the variable X are persons and states of affairs, not other propositions. It doesn't mean "milk is good is true for you" and "milk is good is true for some other people". After all, if truth is relative, how do you explain the truth of the proposition: "milk is good is true relative to some frameworks but not others" is true? You can't, because now there are two senses of "truth" you are using. So your meta-view that truth can even be relative to frameworks undermines itself. You are merely presupposing it can be, and as soon as you do, this presupposition undercuts your very own view that truth is relative.

So,

3. "P is true for x" means nothing at all--it is self-refuting.

Read the SEP above.


How can you say that "P is true for x" means nothing at all when you have just explained its meaning? And when I pointed out that another meaning is that x believes that P is true? If it has two different meanings, then how can it mean nothing at all?
0 Replies
 
Night Ripper
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 12:16 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;157122 wrote:
Truth is a major flash point in discussions of relativism. The traditional indictment of the strong version of truth-value relativism is that it is self-refuting. The claim that truth is relative is, by the relativist's own lights, only true relative to some frameworks and it may be false relative to others. Hence, it is argued, the relativist cannot account for the status of his own claims.


That's only an argument against the claim that "all truths are relative". That has nothing to do with the claim that "all moral truths are relative", which is, after all, not a moral truth.
Extrain
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 12:38 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;157179 wrote:
That's only an argument against the claim that "all truths are relative". That has nothing to do with the claim that "all moral truths are relative", which is, after all, not a moral truth.


huh? Yes, they would be partially non-overlapping claims, but,

(1) "All moral truths are relative"

is an instance of

(2) "All truths are relative"

The falsity of (2) logically entails the falsity of (1).

---------- Post added 04-27-2010 at 12:44 PM ----------

kennethamy;157166 wrote:
How can you say that "P is true for x" means nothing at all when you have just explained its meaning? And when I pointed out that another meaning is that x believes that P is true? If it has two different meanings, then how can it mean nothing at all?


I am talking about the "relativity of truth" claim, buddy. The point is that if "truth" has a subjective, not objective, meaning, then the claim is self-refuting, because the view proposed "that truth is relative" undercuts itself. "Truth is relative" becomes relatively true, and so you haven't said anything and you have no case against me. I can just deny what you said is true since, after all, truth is relative.:rolleyes:
Fil Albuquerque
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 12:49 pm
@Night Ripper,


---------- Post added 04-27-2010 at 01:53 PM ----------

Truth is Relative does not undercut itself if we consider that a set of different truths may be compatible in a bigger set, actually they may be the fundamental reason for each other having true value by contrast...
Extrain
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Apr, 2010 12:56 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;157188 wrote:
For someone who has lactose intolerance milk is not good, not because milk has not the property of being potentially good, but because lactose intolerance has the property of making it wrong...


I can agree with something like that. It certainly heads in the right direction.

Fil. Albuquerque;157188 wrote:
Truth is Relative does not undercut itself if we consider that a set of different truths may be compatible in a bigger set, actually they may be the fundamental reason for each other having true value by contrast...


But this is nonsense. "truth is relative" is inconsistent with the entire set of truths which are not relative. This is precisely the problem. And is "truth is relative" relatively true or not relatively true? It's hogwash.
 

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