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[Anselm]That God truly exists

 
 
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 07:39 pm
@Zetetic11235,
Zetetic11235 wrote:
I am in total agreement about believing in such creatures, I only spoke of their potentiality though, not that it is rational to believe them. In fact, I have absolutely no idea why you introduced the concept of believing something being logical, when I have claimed that it is not(by the way, logical and rational are not synonymous, I am very formalist when I discuss something being logical, i.e. it must be a deduction derived from rigorous applications of formal logic, hence your inductive explanation of not believing in god is not logical, maybe rational but not logical) I think the problem is precision of terms and sloppy argumentation. Your initial comment about being agnostic to unicorns made me think that you had little understanding about such an assertion, i.e. that it is somehow logically sound to refute the existence of (or conversely assert the existence of) a unicorn and that an agnostic empirical approach is irrational. You have made it more clear that this is not the case, but the way you word all of your arguments makes me think you are coming at something from an explicitly wrong way. It seems to be the case that it is only the wording that is making me think this, at least in most cases, so I suppose we aren't arguing about anything but: what is a clear exposition of an argument.


I'm sorry if some of my arguments were "sloppy", but I clarified it for you more than twice. I was not saying that the terms logical and rational/reasonable are synonymous, but they do overlap at times, and I still think that you got my point.

My argument against theism (the belief in a deity) was a logical argument, but it was not an empiricist or positivist argument, and maybe that's where you got confused. Maybe you thought that I was arguing against theism or the existence of deities from a positivist point of view, but I wasn't.

I can however give a positivist reason not to believe in deities or mythical creatures. There is no empirical evidence to support the existence of a deity, anymore than there is evidence to support the existence of unicorns, and these statements are infallible, so one cannot come to a positive conclusion regarding their existence, and therefore there is no sound reason to believe that they exist. Do you agree or disagree?
Zetetic11235
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 07:39 pm
@Zetetic11235,
""So then you should know that the authors of the Bible were aware that the tales they were writing were not literal. Breakthrough!"

You are really testing my patience. The bible authors adopted most of their myths from earlier myths from the Middle East, and Egypt. Therefore, they are not the true originators of these myths, but adopters, and therefore, they could have believed these myths to be literal truths. These were very ancient, intellectually primitive men who believed in many things that we find unbelievable. We take the fact that we know where rain and lightening comes from for granted - lol."

I am not so sure about this. That they could have believed the myths says nothing about whether they did. It is also not strictly correct to say that they were intellectually privative, there is more evidence against this than for it. They may have been privative technologically or scientifically, so their accounts may or may not have been literal answers to scientific questions, but I would say that to be intellectually privative speaks of their mental development more than their knowledge. This should be made more clear. I think that this is important because there were many philosophical and logical insights which seem to sit behind the laws and conepts put forth. For instance, they deduced that it is a good idea to clean one's hands before eating and made it a custom. There are many anti disease measures in the first five books which can become fairly complex given how little knowledge they had of what causes disease. The system of laws is very complex. I am not sure if these people believed in the myths of the day or not, no one is. There is actually a good bit of historical evidence to indicate that many aspects of the old testament, especially the battles in it, were more along the lines of an oral tradition of history keeping which was eventually written down.
0 Replies
 
Didymos Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 07:42 pm
@Zetetic11235,
hue-man wrote:

There are two forms of theism; monotheism and polytheism, and I am opposed to both for logical reasons.


That's fine: but you have not presented a logical argument against manifestations of theism which fit your definition.
hue-man wrote:
Let's imagine for a second that I don't use the word theism. What about my argument against those attributes is illogical?


No glaring illogical argument: except that you argue against those attributes in a way that many theists do not identify - you are using a different understanding of descriptions of God which is alien to the understanding of many theists.

Your arguments rely on the assumption that descriptions of God are literally: most theologians reject literal descriptions of God.
hue-man wrote:
You are really testing my patience. The bible authors adopted most of their myths from earlier myths from the Middle East, and Egypt. Therefore, they are not the true originators of these myths, but adopters, and therefore, they could have believed these myths to be literal truths. These were very ancient, intellectually primitive men who believed in many things that we find unbelievable. We take the fact that we know where rain and lightening comes from for granted - lol.


I'm not sure why I'm getting on your nerves: all I'm doing is responding to your posts. If what I write comes off as personal, I'm sorry.

Now, as for the authors of the Bible: most Biblical myths are remarkably original. All mythology utilizes previous mythology, but this does not mean that the authors of the Bible are not the people who wrote the myths. For example: Dante relied on preexisting mythology, and yet he is the true originator of the Divine Comedy.

I'm going to ignore the baseless accusations about the intellectual capability of humans two thousand years ago - I guess Aristotle, Archimedes, Confucius, the architects who built the Pyramids, I guess all of those cats were intellectually primitive.

Considering that the history of theology suggests that religious scholars have almost unanimously, until modern times, read Old and New Testament scripture figuratively, I'd say the most likely truth is that the authors of the Bible were aware that the stories were not literally true.

hue-man wrote:
Even if the authors were aware that what they were authoring were myths, they didn't seem to intend for the people to think so. Evidence for the fact that the followers of Judeo-Christian mythology, have since its inception, believed that the bible stories were literal, historical truths is undeniable.


Except that that is no evidence for your conclusion. If you check up on the history, you will find that literal readings of the Bible are modern developments and that theologians have always, and almost universally, asserted that scripture is figurative and allegorical.
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 07:47 pm
@Zetetic11235,
Zetetic11235 wrote:
'"Not all theists believe that God literally has the following attributes: omniscience, omnipotence, omnipresence, and benevolence."

Let's imagine for a second that I don't use the word theism. What about my argument against those attributes is illogical?'

He isn't saying anything about your refutation of that specific set of attributes he is saying that that specific set of attributes being logically unsound has no bearing on the logical validity of atheism over theism.


Didymos Thomas, are you saying that atheism is not logically valid at all, or are you saying that atheism is not logically valid over theism? Do you think that theism is logically valid over atheism, or do you think that both positions are logically valid?

(these questions are for Didymos Thomas, not Zetetic)
0 Replies
 
Zetetic11235
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 07:49 pm
@hue-man,
hue-man wrote:
I'm sorry if some of my arguments were "sloppy", but I clarified it for you more than twice. I was not saying that the terms logical and rational/reasonable are synonymous, but they do overlap at times, and I still think that you got my point.

My argument against theism (the belief in a deity) was a logical argument, but it was not an empiricist or positivist argument, and maybe that's where you got confused. Maybe you thought that I was arguing against theism or the existence of deities from a positivist point of view, but I wasn't.

I can however give a positivist reason not to believe in deities or mythical creatures. There is no empirical evidence to support the existence of a deity, anymore than there is evidence to support the existence of unicorns, and these statements are infallible, so one cannot come to a positive conclusion regarding their existence, and therefore there is no sound reason to believe that they exist. Do you agree or disagree?


I can tell you again that for whatever reason either I am not properly getting my points across to you or you are misreading what I am writing just by looking at your comments. I am not saying, nor have I ever said, that it is logical/rational to believe in X whatever X may be, positivist, empiricist or misapplied logical tautology. I said that it is however, illogical to deny the potential existence of X. Two words which are different: Potential, actual. I think I know exactly what sentences of mine you are misreading to get to this point. When I say that it is not logical to not accept a possibility, I am not somehow implying that it is logical to believe an actuality. You need to understand this distinction, and how clear cut I view it to be. Also, I do not think that rationality and logic intersect at all. I see logic formally, as I said. It is a system of deduction, it can be rational to apply logic and rational to draw a conclusion, but it is not logical to apply logic, logic is separate from intent, it is just form. This is how I view logic. Here is my definition of it in the dictionary: logic - Definition from the Merriam-Webster Online Dictionary
Didymos Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 07:52 pm
@Zetetic11235,
hue-man wrote:
Didymos Thomas, are you saying that atheism is not logically valid at all, or are you saying that atheism is not logically valid over theism? Do you think that theism is logically valid over atheism, or do you think that both positions are logically valid?

(these questions are for Didymos Thomas, not Zetetic)


Pure logic? In that case, agnosticism carries the day. Though, if we account for experience (empirical knowledge), then both atheism and theism are equally valid.
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:03 pm
@Zetetic11235,
Zetetic11235 wrote:
I can tell you again that for whatever reason either I am not properly getting my points across to you or you are misreading what I am writing just by looking at your comments. I am not saying, nor have I ever said, that it is logical/rational to believe in X whatever X may be, positivist, empiricist or misapplied logical tautology. I said that it is however, illogical to deny the potential existence of X. Two words which are different: Potential, actual. I think I know exactly what sentences of mine you are misreading to get to this point. When I say that it is not logical to not accept a possibility, I am not somehow implying that it is logical to believe an actuality. You need to understand this distinction, and how clear cut I view it to be. Also, I do not think that rationality and logic intersect at all. I see logic formally, as I said. It is a system of deduction, it can be rational to apply logic and rational to draw a conclusion, but it is not logical to apply logic, logic is separate from intent, it is just form. This is how I view logic. Here is my definition of it in the dictionary: logic - Definition from the Merriam-Webster Online Dictionary


I know that you never said it is logical to believe in X, but you seem to be saying that it is illogical to disbelieve in X, but if you're not, then our debate started due to misreading from both sides. In that case, do you believe that it is illogical to believe in X?

Also, since you're using formal logic and that does not intersect with rationality, do you believe that it is rational to believe in X, or irrational?
0 Replies
 
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:06 pm
@Didymos Thomas,
Didymos Thomas wrote:
Pure logic? In that case, agnosticism carries the day. Though, if we account for experience (empirical knowledge), then both atheism and theism are equally valid.


If we're going by experience (empirical knowledge) then how is theism valid? I take empiricism one step further with positivism.

So according to you, it is not logical to disbelieve in the existence of Zeus?
Didymos Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:14 pm
@hue-man,
hue-man wrote:
If we're going by experience (empirical knowledge) then how is theism valid? I take empiricism one step further with positivism.


Experience of God.

hue-man wrote:
So according to you, it is not logical to disbelieve in the existence of Zeus?


Depends. The ancient Greeks were remarkable in that they seem to have typically literally believed their mythologies. If that is the case then belief in Zeus, a magical man living on top of Mt. Olympus, is not only illogical but demonstrably false.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:22 pm
@Didymos Thomas,
Unless I'm wrong, positivism is the philosophy that regards 'real' knowledge as knowledge based on sensory experience. If anything, positivists are closer to theists in this regard. I mean, you can't really dispute someone else's experience, now can you? Therefore, the theist's experience with "God", regardless of notion, would be considered authentic.

Hue-man, I have the feeling you may be leaning to a more scientific definition of empirical. Maybe along the lines of empirical research or data produced through fixed experiments? Then again, if you're going 'one step further' with positivism, you're going one step closer to theism, not any logical progression.
Didymos Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:33 pm
@Zetherin,
Positivism also suggests that we derive that knowledge, not just from sense experience, but with the scientific method.
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:34 pm
@Didymos Thomas,
Didymos Thomas wrote:
That's fine: but you have not presented a logical argument against manifestations of theism which fit your definition.

No glaring illogical argument: except that you argue against those attributes in a way that many theists do not identify - you are using a different understanding of descriptions of God which is alien to the understanding of many theists.

Your arguments rely on the assumption that descriptions of God are literally: most theologians reject literal descriptions of God.

I'm not sure why I'm getting on your nerves: all I'm doing is responding to your posts. If what I write comes off as personal, I'm sorry.

Now, as for the authors of the Bible: most Biblical myths are remarkably original. All mythology utilizes previous mythology, but this does not mean that the authors of the Bible are not the people who wrote the myths. For example: Dante relied on preexisting mythology, and yet he is the true originator of the Divine Comedy.

I'm going to ignore the baseless accusations about the intellectual capability of humans two thousand years ago - I guess Aristotle, Archimedes, Confucius, the architects who built the Pyramids, I guess all of those cats were intellectually primitive.

Considering that the history of theology suggests that religious scholars have almost unanimously, until modern times, read Old and New Testament scripture figuratively, I'd say the most likely truth is that the authors of the Bible were aware that the stories were not literally true.



Except that that is no evidence for your conclusion. If you check up on the history, you will find that literal readings of the Bible are modern developments and that theologians have always, and almost universally, asserted that scripture is figurative and allegorical.


"No glaring illogical argument: except that you argue against those attributes in a way that many theists do not identify - you are using a different understanding of descriptions of God which is alien to the understanding of many theists.

Your arguments rely on the assumption that descriptions of God are literally: most theologians reject literal descriptions of God."


Many theists do not identify with those attributes? Are you serious? The bible itself attributes these characteristics to God. Now theologians are saying "don't take it literal" because it is incompatible with modern advances in knowledge? You speak of theologians like they are objective scholars. Theology is the study of God or the Gods from a religious perspective. Religious studies is objective, but theology is certainly not. I have not met a theist or heard of a theologian who has said that their God was not all-knowing, all-powerful, and benevolent. After all, if God didn't possess these attributes why would he be worth worshiping?

"Except that that is no evidence for your conclusion. If you check up on the history, you will find that literal readings of the Bible are modern developments and that theologians have always, and almost universally, asserted that scripture is figurative and allegorical."

So orthodox Jews and the first Christians weren't disputing over the divinity and literal interpretation of Jesus Christ? Really, so you just somehow exclude that important detail? You also exclude the fact that the Catholic Church believed that the bible was the literal word of God so strongly that they made blasphemy laws, authorized the persecution of Jews during the Middle Ages, used elements of the Noah's ark story to justify the African slave trade, put Galileo on trial for making a statement that they believed was in disagreement with the bible's view of the physics of the Earth, etc. etc.?

So the Catholic church no longer believes that Jesus was born of a virgin and walked on water?

"I'm going to ignore the baseless accusations about the intellectual capability of humans two thousand years ago - I guess Aristotle, Archimedes, Confucius, the architects who built the Pyramids, I guess all of those cats were intellectually primitive."

By writing this you did not ignore my statement. I was talking about the bible authors, not Aristotle, Confucius, or the damn architects who built the pyramids. I admit that the word intellect may have been the wrong word to use, but I wouldn't say that the bible authors were great philosophers or intellectuals like Aristotle and Socrates. They were primitive in terms of their scope of knowledge, and ethics.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:39 pm
@Didymos Thomas,
Didymos Thomas wrote:
Positivism also suggests that we derive that knowledge, not just from sense experience, but with the scientific method.


Well then I am wrong Smile
0 Replies
 
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:40 pm
@Didymos Thomas,
Didymos Thomas wrote:
Experience of God.



Depends. The ancient Greeks were remarkable in that they seem to have typically literally believed their mythologies. If that is the case then belief in Zeus, a magical man living on top of Mt. Olympus, is not only illogical but demonstrably false.


"Experience of God"

No offense, but I am starting to take you less seriously as we continue. We do not have physical experiences with any Gods, and anyone who claims to have physical experiences with God can never prove it. If reading an ancient book and listening to your priest is experiencing God then you have a low standard for experience.

How is it logical to believe in the existence of Zeus?
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:48 pm
@hue-man,
hue-man wrote:
"Experience of God"

No offense, but I am starting to take you less seriously as we continue. We do not have physical experiences with any Gods, and anyone who claims to have physical experiences with God can never prove it. If reading an ancient book and listening to your priest is experiencing God then you have a low standard for experience.

How is it logical to believe in the existence of Zeus?


Since when do experiences have to be physical? I don't quite see how you can justifiably say another has a low standard for experience. Just because it may not carry a logical progression found in a scientific method, it appears less valid to you. Why?
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:50 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin wrote:
Unless I'm wrong, positivism is the philosophy that regards 'real' knowledge as knowledge based on sensory experience. If anything, positivists are closer to theists in this regard. I mean, you can't really dispute someone else's experience, now can you? Therefore, the theist's experience with "God", regardless of notion, would be considered authentic.

Hue-man, I have the feeling you may be leaning to a more scientific definition of empirical. Maybe along the lines of empirical research or data produced through fixed experiments? Then again, if you're going 'one step further' with positivism, you're going one step closer to theism, not any logical progression.


This is where I stand on positivism, and it does not, in any way, consider theist's "experience" with God to be authentic.

Positivism - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

I am, indeed, leaning towards a more scientific definition of empirical. As I'm sure you know, science developed due to the study of metaphysics and empiricist epistemology.
0 Replies
 
Didymos Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:52 pm
@hue-man,
hue-man wrote:
Many theists do not identify with those attributes? Are you serious? The bible itself attributes these characteristics to God. Now theologians are saying "don't take it literal" because it is incompatible with modern advances in knowledge? You speak of theologians like they are objective scholars. Theology is the study of God or the Gods from a religious perspective. Religious studies is objective, but theology is certainly not. I have not met a theist or heard of a theologian who has said that their God was not all-knowing, all-powerful, and benevolent. After all, if God didn't possess these attributes why would he be worth worshiping?


Yes, very serious. And I'm aware of the contents of the Bible.

Theologians are not claiming that the Bible is figurative because of modernity: the exact opposite is true. Biblical literalism is a modern development; historically, theologians have read the Bible figurative - again, you could check up on Anselm for an example, or Aquinas, or any other prominent theologian. I've already explained this, remember?

I mention theologians because we are talking about interpretations of God and that's what theologians study: God. If you want examples of what people believe, you look to theologians.

Most believers and theologians believe that God is all powerful, all knowing and so forth - but most theologians do not believe that God is literally all powerful, all knowing and so forth: they take these descriptions are figurative. Your arguments take these descriptions to be literal. Thus your arguments do not address the God of many, if not most, theists.

hue-man wrote:
So orthodox Jews and the first Christians weren't disputing over the divinity and literal interpretation of Jesus Christ? Really, so you just somehow exclude that important detail? You also exclude the fact that the Catholic Church believed that the bible was the literal word of God so strongly that they made blasphemy laws, authorized the persecution of Jews during the Middle Ages, used elements of the Noah's ark story to justify the African slave trade, put Galileo on trial for making a statement that they believed was in disagreement with the bible's view of the physics of the Earth, etc. etc.?


Historically, they debated the divinity of Jesus. The stories of Jesus from the Bible are mythology, not history.

As for the Catholic Church: I already said that Catholic dogma has been, since day one, that scripture is not to be read literally. The Catholic aggression towards other faiths was not due to a literal reading of scripture.
You have essentially the same resource as I, educate yourself:
Religion News: Vatican knocks fundamental, literal reading of the Bible

Ask yourself some critical questions: the Bible never speaks of Purgatory, yet Purgatory has been Catholic dogma for centuries. How could Catholics justify Purgatory in their cosmology if it isn't in the Bible? They do not read the Bible literally.

hue-man wrote:
So the Catholic church no longer believes that Jesus was born of a virgin and walked on water?

I never said such a thing, did I?

hue-man wrote:
By writing this you did not ignore my statement. I was talking about the bible authors, not Aristotle, Confucius, or the damn architects who built the pyramids. I admit that the word intellect may have been the wrong word to use, but I wouldn't say that the bible authors were great philosophers or intellectuals like Aristotle and Socrates. They were primitive in terms of their scope of knowledge, and ethics.


Which authors?
Anyway, I'd recommend you study the book before you try to suggest that the authors were primitive in any way, shape, or form.

hue-man wrote:
"Experience of God"

No offense, but I am starting to take you less seriously as we continue. We do not have physical experiences with any Gods, and anyone who claims to have physical experiences with God can never prove it. If reading an ancient book and listening to your priest is experiencing God then you have a low standard for experience.

How is it logical to believe in the existence of Zeus?


No offense taken.

Sure we have physical experiences of God, and no, we cannot prove it. To understand this claim, you would have to understand what is meant by "God". Looking at the arguments you level against God, I'm doubtful that you understand the concept at all. Not that I'm particularly adept myself, but none the less.

It's logical if Zeus corresponds to your experience of the world, and if that understanding does not contain a logical contradiction.
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 08:54 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin wrote:
Since when do experiences have to be physical? I don't quite see how you can justifiably say another has a low standard for experience. Just because it may not carry a logical progression found in a scientific method, it appears less valid to you. Why?


It appears less valid to me because it is an argument used to try and support the existence of God. Singing in a church and quoting bible passages only means that you've experienced the idea of God, not the existence of God.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 09:01 pm
@hue-man,
hue-man wrote:
It appears less valid to me because it is an argument used to try and support the existence of God. Singing in a church and quoting bible passages only means that you've experienced the idea of God, not the existence of God.


Notionally, anything can exist. Therefore, regardless what notion of "God" someone believes, it exists to them.

That's not what you're looking for, though. You're looking for scientific proof. Proof that you're not going to find. But, if you're really adamant about this, I'd like you to scientifically prove these concepts first: "City", "Government", "Country".

You'll have the same trouble. Why? Because these are notions we've constructed. There is no physical "Country" that abides by the scientific method, yet you may not have the same angst towards that word. How does "Country" fit into your positivism?

I'm really curious as to why it's less valid to you.
Solace
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Jan, 2009 11:16 pm
@Didymos Thomas,
Quote:

Some translations have "creation" rather than creature. In any case, the passage is referring to us: mankind.


I can't say that I agree with your interpretation DT, but if you are correct, then surely you prove the point exactly that there is no free will. If we are the creature, and we were made subject to vanity, not of our will, as the passage says, then any argument to counter the Problem of Evil that uses free will is null and void.
 

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