Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Mon 25 Aug, 2008 10:54 am
@Zetetic11235,
I was just asking. As for copyrights, while no one will quibble over small excerpts, the Stanford Encyclopedia almost certainly has some fine print about ownership, attribution, etc, and individual translations of Kant may actually be under copyright depending on when published.

At any rate I appreciate the backup and I wasn't trying to pick a fight!
0 Replies
 
Mr Fight the Power
 
  1  
Reply Mon 25 Aug, 2008 11:35 am
@Ruthless Logic,
Ruthless Logic wrote:
How is this even remotely possible? EVERY SINGLE POSSIBLE CONSIDERATION CAPIABLE OF ARTICULATION DERIVES FROM THE EMPRICAL COMPONETS OF THE NATURAL WORLD.


Kant's interpretation of moral action is action governed by a will that is accountable only to a metaphysical and rational duty to do what is right. The good will is good unconditionally, it is free of both the causal chain before it, and it is good regardless of the consequences.
Ruthless Logic
 
  1  
Reply Mon 25 Aug, 2008 06:18 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes wrote:
Their opinions were certainly informed by their experiences in life. However, both famously believed in a metaphysical basis for morals, and their universal application. This may have been unrealistic and idealistic, but it was what it was. You can't read Gorgias and believe that Plato's ethics took empirical factors into account.

Well, I think it's impossible insofar as we experience before we reason. But that hasn't stopped many if not most moral philosophers from arguing that morals ought to be derived from first principles. I happen to agree more with your approach than theirs, notwithstanding our different conclusions.
Oh don't be so melodramatic. But feel free to lodge a complaint if you wish.



While Immanuel Kant indulges in some dubious propositions regarding the attainment of knowledge, he does acknowledge that MOST of our knowledge does flow from experience. More importantly is your use of his controversial conjectures to refute my empirical claims of experience, but qualify you personal rejection of his Priori Synthetic Propositions. Please refrain from coattail riding, and stand with the courage of personal convictions and the subsequent substantiated revelations of individual detailing. (I greatly appreciate extrapolations based on unbiased original considerations)
Ruthless Logic
 
  1  
Reply Mon 25 Aug, 2008 06:38 pm
@Zetetic11235,
Zetetic11235 wrote:
I think it likely that you have never read any Kant. A quick exerpt from stanford's philosophy encyclopedia with the most pertinent parts in bold:

This allows us to say that a cognition is a posteriori or dependent on sensory impressions just in case it is strictly determined in its form or in its semantic content by sensory impressions; but a cognition is a priori or absolutely independent of all sensory impressions just in case it is not strictly determined in its form or in its semantic content by sensory impressions and is instead strictly determined in its form or in its semantic content by our innate spontaneous cognitive faculties (B2-3). It should be noted that the apriority of a cognition in this sense is perfectly consistent with all sorts of associated sensory impressions and also with the actual presence of sensory matter in that cognition, so long as neither the form nor the semantic content is strictly determined by those sensory impressions. "Pure" a priori cognitions are those that in addition to being a priori or absolutely independent of all sensory impressions, also contain no sensory matter whatsoever (B3). So in other words, some but not all a priori cognitions are pure.
Applying these notions to judgments, it follows that a judgment is a posteriori if and only if either its logical form or its propositional content is strictly determined by sensory impressions; and a judgment is a apriori if and only if neither its logical form nor its propositional content is strictly determined by sensory impressions and both are instead strictly determined by our innate spontaneous cognitive faculties, whether or not that cognition also contains sensory matter. Kant also holds that a judgment is a priori if and only if it is necessarily true (Axv, B3-4, A76/B101). This strong connection between necessity and apriority expresses (i) Kant's view that the contingency of a judgment is bound up with the modal dependence of its semantic content on sensory impressions, i.e., its aposteriority (B3), (ii) his view that necessity is equivalent with strict universality or strenge Allgemeinheit, which he defines in turn as a proposition's lack of any possible counterexamples or falsity-makers (B4), and (iii) his view that necessity entails truth (A75-76/B100-101). Furthermore Kant explicitly holds that not only do a priori judgments really exist in various sciences, including physics and metaphysics, but also that there really are some pure a priori judgments, e.g., in mathematics (B4-5, B14-18).



Your cut and paste propensities do not add to your credibility. Here is a new concept, provide IN YOUR OWN WORDS the implications, as well as analogical illustrations detailing Kant's contentions pertaining to Transcendental Logic and how it offers strict contradictions to the supposedly limited ascertains of empirically based knowledge.
0 Replies
 
Ruthless Logic
 
  1  
Reply Mon 25 Aug, 2008 06:52 pm
@Mr Fight the Power,
Mr. Fight the Power wrote:
Kant's interpretation of moral action is action governed by a will that is accountable only to a metaphysical and rational duty to do what is right. The good will is good unconditionally, it is free of both the causal chain before it, and it is good regardless of the consequences.



Instead of adopting vague terms lifted from an overview of Kant's logic of the A Priori, please use more concise context, thereby providing an evidential sequence for evaluation.
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Mon 25 Aug, 2008 07:13 pm
@Ruthless Logic,
Ruthless Logic wrote:
While Immanuel Kant indulges in some dubious propositions
Yes, dubious, but be honest with yourself, YOU are the one who asked for an alternative to an empirical foundation of ethics!

Quote:
...he does acknowledge that MOST of our knowledge does flow from experience....
Not when he discusses his ethics, though, which is the subject of this 25-page long thread with respect to the abortion debate. We're not talking about epistemology. We're talking about ethics. What ought we to do? Well, not EVERYONE thinks this ought should be informed by experience, and Kant and Plato are two among those. Kant felt that utilitarianism, which requires consideration of observable consequences, was an unsatisfactory foundation of moral reasoning.

Quote:
More importantly is your use of his controversial conjectures to refute my empirical claims of experience
Whether or not it's controversial, his Groundings are at the very core of the canon of philosophical ethics. For you to dismiss it as controversial, thereby ignoring how important it is in the entire history of western philosophy, seems to collide with your own disgruntlement that one might inexcusably misuse the "great philosophers" on a philosophy forum.

But be sure that I wasn't (on these points) refuting your claims of experience. I was simply responding that experience isn't the ONLY way one can prescribe moral decisionmaking, though you negated this very possibility (using all caps).

Quote:
but qualify you personal rejection of his Priori Synthetic Propositions
As even a cursory reading would illustrate, I didn't comment on his synthetic propositions at all. I only commented broadly on his metaphysical basis for ethics. And while I DO personally reject that, that's hardly the point. Irrespective of what I personally believe, I was only responding to this statement of yours:

Ruthless Logic wrote:
How is this even remotely possible? EVERY SINGLE POSSIBLE CONSIDERATION CAPIABLE OF ARTICULATION DERIVES FROM THE EMPRICAL COMPONETS OF THE NATURAL WORLD.
You said it -- and I wish you'd realize that it's ok to be wrong without irrationally lashing out at everyone else around you as you have in these last three posts. You're splitting hairs, diverting the argument, doing everything BUT stay on the topic as if that can distract us all.

You were wrong here. It's ok.

Plato in several of his dialogues, most obviously in Gorgias and in The Republic, is very clear about morals being derived from a metaphysical ideal of "the good". And in his famous tale of the cave (within The Republic) he's directly commenting on how what's in front of our eyes can be an illusion. He rejects empiricism! Kant's morals are also plainly deontological, i.e. independent of empirical considerations. And same with all of Christian ethics, esp Aquinas (and Descartes who did not depart from this). And same with Confucius. So do you still stand by this statement I've quoted?

Quote:
Please refrain from coattail riding, and stand with the courage of personal convictions
Don't flatter yourself -- just because I'm big enough to admit when I agree with you about something doesn't mean I'm riding your coattails. I reveal plenty about how I've come to my moral stance on abortion. It's not some trite middle school level summation of reproductive physiology -- and I certainly don't have the hubris to regard the research of others as my own "empirical experience". My stance is a combination of principled respect for human autonomy, and utilitarian concern for the societal implications of various abortion policies.

Quote:
(I greatly appreciate extrapolations based on unbiased original considerations)
Ah, and here is a conundrum for you. If as you say "EVERY SINGLE POSSIBLE CONSIDERATION CAPIABLE OF ARTICULATION DERIVES FROM THE EMPRICAL COMPONETS OF THE NATURAL WORLD", i.e. experience is absolutely requisite, then you are ADMITTEDLY unoriginal and biased by what you have experienced. So you've contradicted yourself here.

But we limit bias in philosophy by respecting others' ideas.
Don't knock it 'till you try it.
Ruthless Logic
 
  1  
Reply Mon 25 Aug, 2008 10:50 pm
@Aedes,
My related post asked for YOUR alternate process of knowledge building, but in an effort to gain credibility you were compelled to defer to Immanuel Kant, because you obviously have no capacity(do not take it personal) for any stand alone original approacments for consideration.

Even your interjection of Kant's propositions are basically a moot point, because the great Philosopher relinquishes the realization that most of our knowledge is empirically founded. It seems your splitting of hairs represents a motive not entirely based on intellectual honesty, but rather to offer opposition at any expense.

Trust me, I do not need your flatter (my arrogance is only held in check by oppositions, so keep it up, and please do not fuel the fire with mundane agreements), but my referencing of coattail riding was your deferment of Kant for your contention of opposition.

There is no possible conundrum or inconsistency from my claim that all knowledge is empirically gathered, and my accusation of original and unbiased detailing. Obviously the gathering process of knowledge is inherently biased simultaneously, but the ability of cognitive individuals to invoke neutrality provides approachments rivaling the idealistic proposition of unbiased considerations. The limitless multitude of variable propositions derived from empirically based measurements ensures a constant flow of ORIGINAL ideas, with the only constraint derived by one's cognitive ability ( I am sorry, but no contradiction in sight)


If you truly believe the attainment of knowledge is not entirely from the empirical sequence of experience, then use this adopted realization to form any possible mandate you can conjure up, and my rational oppositions directed at you will be like taking candy from a baby, because you will become quite listless from defending the indefensible.
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Tue 26 Aug, 2008 07:08 am
@Ruthless Logic,
I'd suggest you go back and read our exchanges before making posts like this. You did NOT ask me for my personal alternative, and the discussion was NOT about attainment of knowledge. The issue was my protest that you can derive a moral position solely out of empirical factors -- to which you protested that that's the only possible position -- to which I responded that other prominent philosophers would differ from your opinion.

You have been responding to the ethical question of abortion by offering nothing other than common knowledge biological parameters. That is the issue at hand.

I DO agree with you that knowledge is based ultimately (though not wholly) on empirical factors. Of course much of what we "know" is derived from other people's research, so we're largely taking it in good faith that other people's empirical findings are sufficiently accurate. Furthermore, we are also making assumptions about the generalizability of any empirical findings. That's why you can dissect a fetal pig in 7th grade biology and apply that knowledge to human anatomy, rather than just that one fetal pig.

As for my point of view about ethics, since you seem to be interested in my point of view on the matter, I do NOT believe that it's largely based on empirical experience. Moral decisions are made reflexively, emotionally, and psychologically, and then retrospectively rationalized to be consistent with one's worldview. There is a fairly big body of cognitive science literature that supports this view. That's why you can take 100 reproductive scientists who have overlapping and authoritative knowledge of fetal biology, and find that their views on abortion will be consistent with their sociocultural background rather than their scientific understanding. Furthermore, the parameters by which we rationalize a moral stance are based on how we prioritize things (like a woman's autonomy versus the right to life of a fetus), and neither one of those is accessible to empirical evaluation.
0 Replies
 
Mr Fight the Power
 
  1  
Reply Tue 26 Aug, 2008 08:33 am
@Ruthless Logic,
Ruthless Logic wrote:
Instead of adopting vague terms lifted from an overview of Kant's logic of the A Priori, please use more concise context, thereby providing an evidential sequence for evaluation.


My post was concise, clear, and drawn from my understanding of Kant's Grounding of the Metaphysics of Morals.

If there is something you don't understand, please specify.
Ruthless Logic
 
  1  
Reply Tue 26 Aug, 2008 04:18 pm
@Mr Fight the Power,
Aedes wrote:
You have been responding to the ethical question of abortion by offering nothing other than common knowledge biological parameters. That is the issue at hand.
Knowledge splayed with the unequivocal processes of empirical measurements along with the self-evident procedure of consistent articulate adoptions, which by the way is completely UNCOMMON.


P.S. I have much more complex sequencing, but only for the appropriate audience.
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Tue 26 Aug, 2008 06:19 pm
@Ruthless Logic,
This is starting to feel like a poetry slam. :listening:

Imagine the espresso machine, clinking spoons and coffee mugs, wafting smoke hangs ponderously in the air, the low jazz murmuring in the floorboards:

Knowledge!
splayed with the
unequivocal processes
of empirical measurements
along with the
self-evident-procedure-of-consistent-articulate-adoptions!

(which by the way is completely UNCOMMON)

yeah

I have much more,
much more complex...
sequencing...


...but only for the appropriate audience...

(applause)


Couldn't help it -- I was inspired. Can we get back on topic now please?
Mr Fight the Power
 
  1  
Reply Tue 26 Aug, 2008 08:07 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes wrote:
Can we get back on topic now please?


The poetry is much more entertaining, to be honest.
0 Replies
 
Ruthless Logic
 
  1  
Reply Tue 26 Aug, 2008 10:19 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes wrote:
This is starting to feel like a poetry slam. :listening:

Imagine the espresso machine, clinking spoons and coffee mugs, wafting smoke hangs ponderously in the air, the low jazz murmuring in the floorboards:

Knowledge!
splayed with the
unequivocal processes
of empirical measurements
along with the
self-evident-procedure-of-consistent-articulate-adoptions!

(which by the way is completely UNCOMMON)

yeah

I have much more,
much more complex...
sequencing...


...but only for the appropriate audience...

(applause)


Couldn't help it -- I was inspired. Can we get back on topic now please?



Finally, an original observation supplemented with creative flair. Good work!
NeitherExtreme
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 06:08 pm
@Ruthless Logic,
Hi all. Smile

I've read some of this thread, though not all of it, so if I rehash something, please forgive me (or ignore me).

Also, just to make things simple, I'll say right up front that I am in large part against abortion. That said, I don't demonize women who've had an abortion... nor to appreciate people who do. If I care about babies, I should care about mothers too. The abortion industry, on the other hand, has none of my sympathy. I realize there are many reasons that people support abortion, but any group that would stand behind late-term "partial birth abortion" scares me, whatever their stated motives might be.

Aedes, I'll direct this response to you, but anyone else can chime in. We've had some discussions involving morality, and some of what I have to say stems from those conversations...

From previous conversations I understood that, for you, the most important basis for human morality is the fundamental realization and acknowledgement that "we're all in this together", or the Golden Rule more or less. If I'm wrong on that assumtion, let me know, because the rest of this kinda hangs on that...

I'm sure that you've realized the tension between the "we're all in this together" value and the value of individual autonomy. People can use their autonomy to infringe on another's autonomy or well being. So we need to choose, individually and as a society, which one of these values is the more basic, and the more important. And, I assume, we would both conclude that, in general, the "we're all in this together" (or Golden Rule) value trumps the Autonomy value. (Rationally, I think it must, because the Atonomy value, if give free reign, will in the end give autonomy only to those with power, destroying the autonomy of the individual it valued in the first place.) So then I think that, in principle, the autonomy of an individual stops, or is at least comprimised, at the point that it crosses paths with the autonomy or well-being of another individual.

So the question becomes: When does the fetus become one of us, to be included in the "we're all in this together"? Because at that point, the individual autonomy of another, if it is in conflict with the fetus', is either "trumped", or at the very least a comprimise must be worked out. Now, I don't pretend that choosing when a fetus becomes "one of us" is easy. There are many biological, philosophical, psycological, and, for some, religious issues involved in this. But, if the value of a fellow human is more important (or at least as important) as an individual's temporary autonomy, then I think we should turn much our focus on the question of when the fetus becomes one of us, because at the poin that it is one of us, we need to consider the well-being of the mother and the child. Also, at that point pragmatic considerations for the overall good of society would include the well being of the child in that society, which I think is a very important point to make.

I hope that all made sense, it felt somwhat abstract to me and I feel pretty tired at the moment...:perplexed:

Also, as a legal issue, this really confuses me... As I understand it, if a person were to hit a pregnant woman, causing a miscariage, they would be guilty of manslaughter. If, on the other hand, the mother chooses to have the child aborted, it all ok. So is it the mother who decides whether or not the child is human? Seems odd to me. It also seems to send a mixed message to the public. How can a woman be expected to have a guilt-free abortion if she knows that if someone else ended the fetus' life it would be called murder?
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 07:33 pm
@NeitherExtreme,
NeitherExtreme wrote:
From previous conversations I understood that, for you, the most important basis for human morality is the fundamental realization and acknowledgement that "we're all in this together", or the Golden Rule more or less. If I'm wrong on that assumtion, let me know
Yup, completely wrong on that. No idea where you got that idea.

I talk a lot about empathy being intrinsic and not learned, but that is not something that I would translate to your above assumption. All I extend it to is my conviction that the basis of moral judgements is psychological.

As such I don't buy the embedded assumption within the rest of your post, so I can't really respond.

By the way, welcome back, it's good to see you again!
NeitherExtreme
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 07:53 pm
@Aedes,
Sorry, I must have miss-understood you. Just for reference I think these must have been where I got the idea from, though obviously you wrote them, so I'm not going to try to tell you what you meant... :rolleyes: I can see that my interpretation is not the only way these could be taken... I see they make more sense in the perspective you just stated above.
(http://www.philosophyforum.com/forum/philosophy-religion/917-those-condemn-condemned-2.html#post8557)
Aedes wrote:
...we are our own moral standard, and fortunately there happens to be tremendous commonality pan-culturally and pan-geographically. It's not some Darwinian free-for-all. We're in this together, we know we're in this together, we recoil in horror at the same things, and we rejoice at the same things.

Aedes wrote:

NeitherExtreme wrote:
The simplest and highest moral (people to people) that He taught is to "Love your neighbor as yourself".

Which is something that people believe anyway...


So anyway, ignoring the added confusion and miss-understanding on my part... Don't you think that the child, once it is one of us, needs to be factored into any pragmatic or utilitarian view of the issue? At that point, isn't it part of the society which we are trying to help?

And the legal question I asked at the end still seems like a good one...
NeitherExtreme
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 07:59 pm
@NeitherExtreme,
Aedes wrote:

By the way, welcome back, it's good to see you again!

Thanks. Smile I took a bit of a philosophy break, for the well-being of my mind. Surprised Sometimes I need to just live for a while...
0 Replies
 
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 08:21 pm
@NeitherExtreme,
NeitherExtreme wrote:
Don't you think that the child, once it is one of us, needs to be factored into any pragmatic or utilitarian view of the issue? At that point, isn't it part of the society which we are trying to help?
Sure. But it's a lot more complicated than the pure black and white question of human versus not human, or alive versus dead.

NeitherExtreme wrote:
As I understand it, if a person were to hit a pregnant woman, causing a miscariage, they would be guilty of manslaughter. If, on the other hand, the mother chooses to have the child aborted, it all ok. So is it the mother who decides whether or not the child is human?
The law isn't about the definition of human. The law is about the definition of murder, which legally need not be applied equally to all humans in all situations.
Mr Fight the Power
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 08:30 pm
@NeitherExtreme,
NeitherExtreme wrote:
Hi all. Smile

I've read some of this thread, though not all of it, so if I rehash something, please forgive me (or ignore me).

Also, just to make things simple, I'll say right up front that I am in large part against abortion. That said, I don't demonize women who've had an abortion... nor to appreciate people who do. If I care about babies, I should care about mothers too. The abortion industry, on the other hand, has none of my sympathy. I realize there are many reasons that people support abortion, but any group that would stand behind late-term "partial birth abortion" scares me, whatever their stated motives might be.

Aedes, I'll direct this response to you, but anyone else can chime in. We've had some discussions involving morality, and some of what I have to say stems from those conversations...

From previous conversations I understood that, for you, the most important basis for human morality is the fundamental realization and acknowledgement that "we're all in this together", or the Golden Rule more or less. If I'm wrong on that assumtion, let me know, because the rest of this kinda hangs on that...

I'm sure that you've realized the tension between the "we're all in this together" value and the value of individual autonomy. People can use their autonomy to infringe on another's autonomy or well being. So we need to choose, individually and as a society, which one of these values is the more basic, and the more important. And, I assume, we would both conclude that, in general, the "we're all in this together" (or Golden Rule) value trumps the Autonomy value. (Rationally, I think it must, because the Atonomy value, if give free reign, will in the end give autonomy only to those with power, destroying the autonomy of the individual it valued in the first place.) So then I think that, in principle, the autonomy of an individual stops, or is at least comprimised, at the point that it crosses paths with the autonomy or well-being of another individual.

So the question becomes: When does the fetus become one of us, to be included in the "we're all in this together"? Because at that point, the individual autonomy of another, if it is in conflict with the fetus', is either "trumped", or at the very least a comprimise must be worked out. Now, I don't pretend that choosing when a fetus becomes "one of us" is easy. There are many biological, philosophical, psycological, and, for some, religious issues involved in this. But, if the value of a fellow human is more important (or at least as important) as an individual's temporary autonomy, then I think we should turn much our focus on the question of when the fetus becomes one of us, because at the poin that it is one of us, we need to consider the well-being of the mother and the child. Also, at that point pragmatic considerations for the overall good of society would include the well being of the child in that society, which I think is a very important point to make.


There are many things that I just don't understand about the anti-abortion argument, but what confuses me the most is the general hidden assumption that abortion is an assault on the fetus.

You act like giving the woman a right to abortion gives her the autonomy to aggress against the fetus, when it is the other way around: outlawing abortion gives the fetus carte blanche to aggress against the woman, while allowing abortion simply maintains the boundaries the woman should have as a person.

Quote:
Also, as a legal issue, this really confuses me... As I understand it, if a person were to hit a pregnant woman, causing a miscariage, they would be guilty of manslaughter. If, on the other hand, the mother chooses to have the child aborted, it all ok. So is it the mother who decides whether or not the child is human? Seems odd to me. It also seems to send a mixed message to the public. How can a woman be expected to have a guilt-free abortion if she knows that if someone else ended the fetus' life it would be called murder?



I will agree with you on this, and I do believe many pro-choice groups oppose any law that grants this status to the fetus.

Not that causing an unwanted miscarriage should go unpunished, though. (as an anarchist, I think this issue would be much better settled privately)
0 Replies
 
NeitherExtreme
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 09:28 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes wrote:
Sure. But it's a lot more complicated than the pure black and white question of human versus not human, or alive versus dead.

Yeah, I understand that very well... I guess what I'm driving at, in my long-winded way, is that it seems to me that if the motivation of the abortion industry and pro-choicers was actually individual autonomy, then they would be interested in addressing the issue, because at some point the fetus' autonomy is at stake as well. But, from what I've seen, they seem to have absolutely no interest in defining it or even addressing the question, and that just seems wrong to me. There. That was simple, wasn't it. :rolleyes:

Aedes wrote:

The law isn't about the definition of human. The law is about the definition of murder, which legally need not be applied equally to all humans in all situations.

Ok, but I'm not seeing the logic here yet... It may not need to be applied equally to all humans in all situations, but certainly it should still only be applied to humans? I mean, someone should not be charged for murder if they haven't killed anyone, right?

Mr. Fight the Power wrote:
There are many things that I just don't understand about the anti-abortion argument, but what confuses me the most is the general hidden assumption that abortion is an assault on the fetus.

You act like giving the woman a right to abortion gives her the autonomy to aggress against the fetus, when it is the other way around: outlawing abortion gives the fetus carte blanche to aggress against the woman, while allowing abortion simply maintains the boundaries the woman should have as a person.

First of all, the idea that abortion is an assault against the fetus is not a "general hidden assumtion" of the anti-abortionists, it is their clearly stated problem with abortion in the first place. There's no hidden agenda there, that's the whole complaint.

Well, I wrote quite a bit more, but realized nobody's likely to change opinions here, so why get all heated? Just to see if we have any common ground to start with... would you contend that "partial birth abortion" is not not an assault on the child, but is in fact is an act of defense by the woman and doctor against the aggression of the child?
 

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