@Foxfyre,
Quote:The social contract did not allow the predator to use the government to take property from one person and provide it for the private benefit of another as that would leave the people no better off than they were when everybody fended for himself. John Locke was quite clear about that, as were those who broke with England and set about setting up a new nation in which unalienable rights were inviolate.
Yours is an interesting reading of Locke Fox. Could you point us to where he said it?
Locke has this to say about property prior to government in his 2nd treatise.
Quote:Right and conveniency went together; for as a man had a right to all he could employ his labour upon, so he had no temptation to labour for more than he could make use of. This left no room for controversy about the title, nor for encroachment on the right of others; what portion a man carved to himself, was easily seen; and it was useless, as well as dishonest, to carve himself too much, or take more than he needed.
Locke then has this to say this -
Quote:For when any number of men have, by the consent of every individual, made a community, they have thereby made that community one body, with a power to act as one body, which is only by the will and determination of the majority:
And finally Locke says this which seems to directly contradict your statement Fox
Quote:To understand this the better, it is fit to consider, that every man, when he at first incorporates himself into any commonwealth, he, by his uniting himself thereunto, annexed also, and submits to the community, those possessions, which he has, or shall acquire, that do not already belong to any other government: for it would be a direct contradiction, for any one to enter into society with others for the securing and regulating of property; and yet to suppose his land, whose property is to be regulated by the laws of the society, should be exempt from the jurisdiction of that government, to which he himself, the proprietor of the land, is a subject.
Locke says natural property rights mean that one owns only what one needs.
Locke then says that upon joining a community all property comes under the jurisdiction of that community which is governed not by the single property owner but by the majority opinion within that community. I can find your interpretation of Locke nowhere in his writings without mangling his meaning beyond comprehension. Could you direct me to where he said what you are claiming he said?
Locke also says this..
Quote:It is true, governments cannot be supported without great charge, and it is fit every one who enjoys his share of the protection, should pay out of his estate his proportion for the maintenance of it. But still it must be with his own consent, i.e. the consent of the majority, giving it either by themselves, or their representatives chosen by them: for if any one shall claim a power to lay and levy taxes on the people, by his own authority, and without such consent of the people, he thereby invades the fundamental law of property, and subverts the end of government: for what property have I in that, which another may by right take, when he pleases, to himself?
Taxation in the US is based on the consent of the majority and their representatives chosen by that majority.
I think you need to actually read Locke before you try to tell us what he said Fox.