@blatham,
blatham wrote:
There's too much in there that is not very coherent, fox. "Founders' intent", aside from whether that construction actually makes sense, involves a legal argument, not a moral argument.
More tellingly, you end up labeling it immoral when taxes go to alleviate suffering but moral when they got to sewer maintenance instead.
No, the Founder's intent in this context explains the principle they used to establish law concerning private property. It is not a difficult concept at all and is instructive in understanding the difference between public property and private property.
I don't believe I have attached a moral judgment to anything related to human suffering. I do think there is a moral principle that allows room for government, with the consent of the people via their lawfully elected representatives, to provide mutually beneficial and shared services and that does require the government to levy taxes in order to provide those services.
My question has to do with the government taking property from one citizen and giving that property to another for the other's exclusive benefit. Citizen B who receives the property might be a poor person or otherwise disadvantaged or a tsunami victim or for any number of reasons deemed to be needy and therefore deserving of the benefit.
But what moral principle allows the government to confiscate Citizen A's property for the purpose of exclusively benefitting Citizen B?