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AMERICAN CONSERVATISM IN 2008 AND BEYOND

 
 
DontTreadOnMe
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 02:04 pm
@Cycloptichorn,
uh-huh....
0 Replies
 
Walter Hinteler
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 02:50 pm
@Foxfyre,
Foxfyre wrote:

When we have won.


Well that might last some time.

Tomorrow 70 years ago the World War II started.
On 11 December 1941, Germany declared war on the United States, the same day that the United States declared war on Germany.

US troops entered German territory ... well, about Christmas 1944.
On 23 May 1949, the Federal Republic of Germany was formed from the US, British and French Zones (and the three Western Sectors of Berlin).

Germany became fully sovereign on 15 March 1991. [And only since then (sic!) we don't have capital punishment anymore: in the American Sector of Berlin you could until that day get the death penalty for e.g. having a bowie knife.]

So, how do you define "When we have won"?

(I'm not referring to the 68,000 US Troops stationed in Germany today.)
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 03:23 pm
@joefromchicago,
ican comments are in blue
joefromchicago wrote:
But we're not comparing apples and oranges here. You're sure about the unconstitutionality of wealth transferral because it's not mentioned in the constitution,

I am sure about the unconstitutionality of "wealth transfer," because the Constitution does not grant the feds the power to "transfer wealth."

yet you're unsure about the constitutionality of printing money, even though that's not mentioned in the constitution either. Why aren't you as sure about the latter as you are about the former?

I am unsure about whether or not the three grants of power in the Constitution I previously referenced, grant the feds by implication the power to print money.

However, I oppose the feds printing money unless the printed money is backed by a specified amount of metal that can on demand be exchanged for the printed money (e.g., specified ounces of gold per $100 of printed money). I advocate an Amendment to the Constitution that requires that.


Let me offer one likely explanation for your evident confusion: you don't like what you term "wealth transfers," and so you're sure they're unconstitutional. On the other hand, you like printed money, so you're not sure about whether that's constitutional or not.

Wrong, I like only that printed money that is exchangeable for a federally specified amount of metal (e.g., specified ounces of gold per $100 of printed money).

ican711nm wrote:
TARP money allegedly went to private persons or to private organizations (see Foxfyre's previous post).

TARP money went to a lot of people. But to whom was it given?

TARP money was given to the people or organizations that received it who may or may not be able to repay it.

Look, this is all very simple: you said that TARP was unconstitutional because it involved a "transfer of wealth" from those that earned it to those that didn't. Upon closer examination, however, it appears that a "transfer of wealth" only occurs when someone actually owns the benefit that the government confers -- in other words, receiving a loan doesn't constitute a "transfer of wealth," since the recipient doesn't own the loaned money.

The recipient owns the money s/he received in a loan if permitted to spend it for what he obtained the money to purchase.

Yet TARP, as far as I can determine, didn't involve giving the federal funds to anyone, and you have failed to identify a single instance where a TARP funds recipient was given money under that program. So, according to your definition, TARP didn't involve a "transfer of wealth" at all. Isn't that right?

Wrong! TARP money has been given to persons and organizations who then spend it for what they want to spend it for. Therefore they own it until and if they refund it.

Does one own the factory or home or airplane which one purchased with borrowed--mortgage--money? Of course one does. One cannot obtain a mortgage to buy a factory or home or airplane unless one can show one legally owns, or is about to legally own that factory or home or airplane. A mortgage is merely a lien on what is purchased not a transfer of ownership. One may cease to own it only if one fails to make one's mortgage payments when due, and the mortgage is foreclosed. Sometimes, the mortgagor grants the mortgagee extra time to make the mortgage payments when passed due.

Therefore, TARP loans are transfers of wealth no matter how temporary those transfers are.
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 03:25 pm
@Walter Hinteler,
The winners of WWII won increased security of their rights to life, liberty, and pursuit of happiness.
Walter Hinteler
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 03:30 pm
@ican711nm,
ican711nm wrote:

The winners of WWII won increased security of their rights to life, liberty, and pursuit of happiness.


True. But I didn't question that.
It took more than 46 years until you officially won ...
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 03:52 pm
@Walter Hinteler,
When the Nazis and Shintoists were conquered and Germany and Japan signed their peace treaties with all of us, we all "officially won."

As a matter of fact, the German and Japanese people also officially won on those peace treaty signing days.
Walter Hinteler
 
  2  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 03:58 pm
@ican711nm,
ican711nm wrote:

When the Nazis and Shintoists were conquered and Germany and Japan signed their peace treaties with all of us, we all "officially won."

As a matter of fact, the German and Japanese people also officially won on those peace treaty signing days.


Definitely a "No" to that.
At least for Germany, WWII ended officially with the Treaty on the Final Settlement With Respect to Germany (aka "Two Plus Four Agreement") on March 15, 1991: under the terms of that treaty, the 'Four Powers' renounced all rights they formerly held in Germany, including in regard to the city of Berlin.

Since there wasn't any peace treaty at all, one may call this such.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  2  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 06:00 pm
@ican711nm,
ican711nm wrote:
I am sure about the unconstitutionality of "wealth transfer," because the Constitution does not grant the feds the power to "transfer wealth."

The constitution does not explicitly grant the feds the power to print money or build airports either. Yet you are strangely ambivalent about the constitutionality of those powers.

ican711nm wrote:
I am unsure about whether or not the three grants of power in the Constitution I previously referenced, grant the feds by implication the power to print money.

What more information would you need in order to make up your mind?

ican711nm wrote:
However, I oppose the feds printing money unless the printed money is backed by a specified amount of metal that can on demand be exchanged for the printed money (e.g., specified ounces of gold per $100 of printed money). I advocate an Amendment to the Constitution that requires that.

Do you oppose that because convertability of paper currency is constitutionally required or because it's just a good policy?

ican711nm wrote:
Wrong, I like only that printed money that is exchangeable for a federally specified amount of metal (e.g., specified ounces of gold per $100 of printed money).

Then you don't like paper money.

ican711nm wrote:
The recipient owns the money s/he received in a loan if permitted to spend it for what he obtained the money to purchase.

That's absurd. If I loan you my car to run an errand, do you thereby own my car?

ican711nm wrote:
Wrong! TARP money has been given to persons and organizations who then spend it for what they want to spend it for. Therefore they own it until and if they refund it.

Does one own the factory or home or airplane which one purchased with borrowed--mortgage--money? Of course one does. One cannot obtain a mortgage to buy a factory or home or airplane unless one can show one legally owns, or is about to legally own that factory or home or airplane. A mortgage is merely a lien on what is purchased not a transfer of ownership. One may cease to own it only if one fails to make one's mortgage payments when due, and the mortgage is foreclosed. Sometimes, the mortgagor grants the mortgagee extra time to make the mortgage payments when passed due.

Again, that's simply a contingency. Whether the recipient uses the loan to buy something or buy nothing doesn't affect the status of the loan itself. In any event, if the recipient must repay the loan with interest, how is there a transfer of wealth? If the lender gets back more than it loaned, isn't the wealth being transferred from debtor to lender rather than vice versa?

ican711nm wrote:
Therefore, TARP loans are transfers of wealth no matter how temporary those transfers are.

Would it help if I copied-and-pasted a dictionary definition of "own?"
Foxfyre
 
  0  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 06:36 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:

ican711nm wrote:
I am sure about the unconstitutionality of "wealth transfer," because the Constitution does not grant the feds the power to "transfer wealth."

The constitution does not explicitly grant the feds the power to print money or build airports either. Yet you are strangely ambivalent about the constitutionality of those powers.


Don't liberals have any concept of degree of severity or importance? I dislike cooked carrots but I would eat them if served to me, but some other foods I dislike enough that I would prefer not to eat at all than to eat them. In matters of government, it is inevitable that there will be some ambivalence in the gray areas while holding strong opinons re the blatant misuse of the people's money, resources, and/or violations of their Constitutional, civil, legal, human, unalienable rights.

Quote:
ican711nm wrote:
I am unsure about whether or not the three grants of power in the Constitution I previously referenced, grant the feds by implication the power to print money.

What more information would you need in order to make up your mind?


I am willing to accept paper money as a symbol or secured note for a coin and t think that does not violate the spirit and intent of the Constitution authorizing the federal government power to issue money and set the value of it. I'm guessing Ican is looking at it somewhat the same way.

Quote:
ican711nm wrote:
However, I oppose the feds printing money unless the printed money is backed by a specified amount of metal that can on demand be exchanged for the printed money (e.g., specified ounces of gold per $100 of printed money). I advocate an Amendment to the Constitution that requires that.

Do you oppose that because convertability of paper currency is constitutionally required or because it's just a good policy?


Ican can speak for himself. I think it is the only policy that is likely to rein in the excesses of government.

Quote:
ican711nm wrote:
Wrong, I like only that printed money that is exchangeable for a federally specified amount of metal (e.g., specified ounces of gold per $100 of printed money).

Then you don't like paper money.


I dont' think Ican's statement can be extrapolated to him not liking paper money at all.

Quote:
ican711nm wrote:
The recipient owns the money s/he received in a loan if permitted to spend it for what he obtained the money to purchase.

That's absurd. If I loan you my car to run an errand, do you thereby own my car?


No, but you have chosen to risk your assets by loaning your car. Ican could choose to drive it recklessly or might crunch it or might simply disappear with it. In any case you risked not getting back as much asset as you loaned or losing the asset altogether. It is your choice however, and you would probably exercise some careful judgment before loaning your car.

Should you loan Ican my car, however, a much greater degree of responsibility and care would be warranted.

It is as wrong for the Federal govrenment to risk the peoples' money for purposes not authorized by the Constitution as it is for the Federal government to give the peoples' money for purposes not authorized by the Constitution.

Quote:
ican711nm wrote:
Wrong! TARP money has been given to persons and organizations who then spend it for what they want to spend it for. Therefore they own it until and if they refund it.

Does one own the factory or home or airplane which one purchased with borrowed--mortgage--money? Of course one does. One cannot obtain a mortgage to buy a factory or home or airplane unless one can show one legally owns, or is about to legally own that factory or home or airplane. A mortgage is merely a lien on what is purchased not a transfer of ownership. One may cease to own it only if one fails to make one's mortgage payments when due, and the mortgage is foreclosed. Sometimes, the mortgagor grants the mortgagee extra time to make the mortgage payments when passed due.

Again, that's simply a contingency. Whether the recipient uses the loan to buy something or buy nothing doesn't affect the status of the loan itself. In any event, if the recipient must repay the loan with interest, how is there a transfer of wealth? If the lender gets back more than it loaned, isn't the wealth being transferred from debtor to lender rather than vice versa?


Would you look at it that way if I loaned Ican your car with the stipulation that he would return it when he could, regardless of how long that might take, and knowing that there was a good chance he wouldn't return it at all?

Quote:
ican711nm wrote:
Therefore, TARP loans are transfers of wealth no matter how temporary those transfers are.

Would it help if I copied-and-pasted a dictionary definition of "own?"


Here. I'll do it for you:

Quote:
transitive verb
to possess; hold as personal property; have
http://www.yourdictionary.com/own


If you borrow $100 from Ican to go to the casino, with the understanding you will repay the money, do you look at the bet you place on the Blackjack or Craps table as Ican's money or your money? Do you feel you are losing Ican's money? Or are you losing your money?
cicerone imposter
 
  2  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 07:01 pm
@Foxfyre,
What's "severity of importance?" Congress does anything they please that they can legislate into law to spend money. If you have a problem with that, it's just too bad; live with it! As one voter, you have absolutely no control over congress.
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 07:07 pm
@joefromchicago,
ican's comments are in blue.
joefromchicago wrote:


The constitution does not explicitly grant the feds the power to print money or build airports either. Yet you are strangely ambivalent about the constitutionality of those powers.

The Constitution does not explicitly or implicitly grant the feds the power to transfer wealth from those who lawfully earned it to those who did not lawfully earn it

What more information would you need in order to make up your mind?

To help make up my mind about the constitutionality of paper money, I'd start by researching the Federalist Papers to see if there is anything in them on the subject relating to the opinions of the founding fathers.

Do you oppose that because convertability of paper currency is constitutionally required or because it's just a good policy?

I think the convertibility of paper currency is just good policy.

Then you don't like paper money.

I don't like paper money that is not convertible to something of value equivalent to the value of what the paper money is alleged to be.

That's absurd. If I loan you my car to run an errand, do you thereby own my car?

Of course not! But if you loan me money to buy a car, I will own the car I buy, and the car--or something else--would merely be collateral for the loan.

Again, that's simply a contingency. Whether the recipient uses the loan to buy something or buy nothing doesn't affect the status of the loan itself. In any event, if the recipient must repay the loan with interest, how is there a transfer of wealth? If the lender gets back more than it loaned, isn't the wealth being transferred from debtor to lender rather than vice versa?

The money the feds loan is owned by the borrower until it is time to repay the loan. The interest on the loan is merely the fee for obtaining the loan.

Would it help if I copied-and-pasted a dictionary definition of "own?"


http://unabridged.merriam-webster.com/cgi-bin/unabridged?va=own&x=24&y=6
Main Entry: 1own
...
1 : belonging to oneself or itself -- usually used following a possessive case or pronoun to emphasize or intensify the idea of property, peculiar interest, or exclusive ownership, and usually with reflexive force <my own father> <his own composition>
2 -- used to specify an immediate or direct relationship <an own brother> <an own cousin> <own sister to the queen>
3 -- used to indicate or intensify the idea of one's own self as agent or doer <cooked his own meal> <acted as his own lawyer>
- be one's own man : to have command of oneself : not to be subject to another <the college president must be his own man -- Harold Taylor>

ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Aug, 2009 07:20 pm
@cicerone imposter,
cicerone imposter wrote:
Congress does anything they please that they can legislate into law to spend money. If you have a problem with that, it's just too bad; live with it! As one voter, you have absolutely no control over congress.

Congress is not granted the power by the Constitution to do "anything they please that they can legislate into law to spend money." Congress's powers to spend tax revenue are strictly restricted to those things the Constitution grants Congress.

When Congress does anything else it is violating the "supreme law of the land."

When a congressional majority violates the "supreme law of the land" by authorizing unconstitutional expenditures, that congressional majority deserves to be impeached and removed.

In any case, as one voter, I can join with other voters who join with many many more voters to vote such a rotten congressional majority out of office. So live with it!
FreeDuck
 
  3  
Reply Tue 1 Sep, 2009 06:50 am
@Foxfyre,
Foxfyre wrote:

I don't consider unsustainable deficits to be an acceptable return on our money. What if instead of the goverment spending us into oblivion, it had chosen to restrain spending for anything we didn't absolutely have to do, and rather focus on relaxing all but the most necessary regulations and providing incentives for busineses to begin to hire and take reasonable risks again and other measures that encourage the private sector to recover and grow.

I think if we had done that we would be seeing ourselves climbing out of the mess by now.

So you're having second thoughts about your support for the TARP program, then?
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  2  
Reply Tue 1 Sep, 2009 07:07 am
@ican711nm,
That's funny ican...
You don't like paper money because it can't be converted into something of equal value but in your next statement you say a car has equal value of money.

Do you ever bother to think before you write things?
joefromchicago
 
  2  
Reply Tue 1 Sep, 2009 08:29 am
@Foxfyre,
Foxfyre wrote:
In matters of government, it is inevitable that there will be some ambivalence in the gray areas while holding strong opinons re the blatant misuse of the people's money, resources, and/or violations of their Constitutional, civil, legal, human, unalienable rights.

Are there gray areas when it comes to the constitution?

Foxfyre wrote:
Ican can speak for himself.

You coulda' fooled me.
joefromchicago
 
  2  
Reply Tue 1 Sep, 2009 08:45 am
@ican711nm,
ican711nm wrote:

joefromchicago wrote:
The constitution does not explicitly grant the feds the power to print money or build airports either. Yet you are strangely ambivalent about the constitutionality of those powers.


The Constitution does not explicitly or implicitly grant the feds the power to transfer wealth from those who lawfully earned it to those who did not lawfully earn it

You're pretty sure about that, but you have no clue how the constitution implicitly permits congress to print paper money. How can you be so sure about the former and so confused about the latter?

ican711nm wrote:
To help make up my mind about the constitutionality of paper money, I'd start by researching the Federalist Papers to see if there is anything in them on the subject relating to the opinions of the founding fathers.

I checked. There's nothing in the Federalist Papers about the federal government printing money, only some references to the prohibition against states issuing paper money (see nos. 42 and 44). Does that help you make up your mind?

ican711nm wrote:
Of course not! But if you loan me money to buy a car, I will own the car I buy, and the car--or something else--would merely be collateral for the loan.

What you do with the loaned money doesn't have any bearing on the constitutionality of the loan itself. Where in the constitution does it say that the federal government can't lend money if the recipient is planning on buying something with that money?

ican711nm wrote:
The money the feds loan is owned by the borrower until it is time to repay the loan.

Even after copying-and-pasting the dictionary definition, you still don't understand what "own" means. That's a shame.

ican711nm wrote:
The interest on the loan is merely the fee for obtaining the loan.

No, the interest is the charge for the time-value of the money.
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Sep, 2009 08:55 am
@parados,
parados wrote:
You don't like paper money because it can't be converted into something of equal value but in your next statement you say a car has equal value of money.

Shame on you! I didn't say that!
parados
 
  2  
Reply Tue 1 Sep, 2009 09:00 am
@ican711nm,
Quote:
Of course not! But if you loan me money to buy a car, I will own the car I buy, and the car--or something else--would merely be collateral for the loan.

Was the loan using money?
Does the collateral of the car have a monetary value?

If the car has no monetary value then how is it collateral for a loan of money?

You can't use something that has no value as collateral on a loan. The car MUST have monetary value based on your statement.
0 Replies
 
ican711nm
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Sep, 2009 09:27 am
@joefromchicago,
ican's comments are in blue.
joefromchicago wrote:
You're pretty sure about that, but you have no clue how the constitution implicitly permits congress to print paper money. How can you be so sure about the former and so confused about the latter?

Wrong, Joe! I have a clue. I previously posted my clue, and here is my clue again:
Article I.
Section 8. The Congress shall have power
To lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts and excises, to pay the debts and provide for the common defense and general welfare of the United States; but all duties, imposts and excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;
To borrow money on the credit of the United States;
To regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes;
To establish a uniform rule of naturalization, and uniform laws on the subject of bankruptcies throughout the United States;
To coin money, regulate the value thereof, and of foreign coin, and fix the standard of weights and measures;


I checked. There's nothing in the Federalist Papers about the federal government printing money, only some references to the prohibition against states issuing paper money (see nos. 42 and 44). Does that help you make up your mind?

Yes, it helps some, but it is not conclusive enough for me to make a decision about that.

What you do with the loaned money doesn't have any bearing on the constitutionality of the loan itself. Where in the constitution does it say that the federal government can't lend money if the recipient is planning on buying something with that money?

Where in the Constitution does it say the federal government CAN lend money if the recipient is planning on buying something with that money?

One more time, Joe: THE FEDS DO NOT HAVE THE LEGAL POWER TO DO SOMETHING IF THAT POWER IS NOT GRANTED THE FEDS IN THE CONSTITUTION!


Even after copying-and-pasting the dictionary definition, you still don't understand what "own" means. That's a shame.

You apparently are unable to grasp all the meaningS of the definition.

No, the interest ON LOANED MONEY is the charge for the time-value of the money.

It is the fee for BOTH obtaining and possessing the money for a time.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Sep, 2009 10:23 am
@ican711nm,
ican711nm wrote:
Wrong, Joe! I have a clue. I previously posted my clue, and here is my clue again:
Article I.
Section 8. The Congress shall have power
To lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts and excises, to pay the debts and provide for the common defense and general welfare of the United States; but all duties, imposts and excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;
To borrow money on the credit of the United States;
To regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes;
To establish a uniform rule of naturalization, and uniform laws on the subject of bankruptcies throughout the United States;
To coin money, regulate the value thereof, and of foreign coin, and fix the standard of weights and measures;

None of those provisions say anything about printing money. Are you, therefore, suggesting that some congressional powers are not explicitly mentioned in the constitution?

ican711nm wrote:
Yes, it helps some, but it is not conclusive enough for me to make a decision about that.

What else do you need to know before you can make up your mind. It sure seems like you could make up your mind about "wealth transfers" without all of this additional information (the Federalist Papers, by the way, don't say anything about the government lending money either -- but then I'm sure you already knew that).

ican711nm wrote:
Where in the Constitution does it say the federal government CAN lend money if the recipient is planning on buying something with that money?

Art. I, sec. 8: The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States
 

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