@parados,
parados wrote:And where does the constitution use the word "dollar"?
The Constitution does use the word
income in Amendment XVI. That's close enough to
dollars of income.
Before the 16th Amendment, they taxed population--i.e., headcount--
uniformly throughout the United States.
Since nothing in the 16th Amendment changed the meaning of
uniform, there is zero justification to support the notion that while taxes had to be
uniform when taxing headcount before the 16th Amendment, they didn't have to be
uniform on dollars of income after the 16th Amendment.