@Foxfyre,
Foxfyre wrote:
But given no circumstances of criminality or those contracts we voluntarily enter into, at face value, is it moral and just for one person to be forcibly used to serve the purpose of another?"
OK, now you are making an exception for the action of government and the law with respect to criminality. Are their any other such exceptions you may propose? Now that you have opened that door, there is a good distance you must travel.
Can I assume that it is the action of duly constituted criminal law that creates the distinction here? Note that it is a criminal act to evade payment of taxes, even if one believes those taxes are being wrongfully used to compel your service (and property) to be used for the purposes of others. Thus by the "criminality" standard you, yourself proposed Professor Williams' argument is moot.
Perhaps you instead mean this to apply only to "really bad" crimes and make an exception of tax laws. However, in that eventuality you have a rather formidable job to do in recasting your proposition. What does "really bad" mean? Where is the moral line there?
I'm not trying to give you a hard time for its own sake, but rather to illustrate the logical hazards of such sophistry.
I do agree that we may be approaching a degree of government-mandated wealth & property transfer that could, in some instances, yield more bad effects than good. To a large degree my view here is influenced by my own poor opinion of the practical efficacy of government in such areas. However, these are practical considerations that permit selectivity and degrees of difference -- not absolute principles.