vikorr wrote:While I didn't mention it, I was also talking about personal happiness (I didn't mention it because the first should have been all that was necessary.)
It is also about the health of the relationship - so yes, it is a need.
You are assuming motivations/goals here that were not in the question that was asked.
The question asked and answered (by me) was
"Does any Person A have the right to insist a Person B does something unwillingly in order to satisfy the needs of Person A?"
There is nothing there about happiness or relationships. What if there is no relationship? What if Person A and Person B are total strangers that run into each other on the street and will never see each other again? It's a straight forward question which I answered on it's face. Hence the disconnect in our views. The person that asked the question made the statement "
The general point I wanted to discuss here...". You've assumed a goal (happiness and/or a healthy relationship)instead of leaving it general.
Quote:That you don't agree with the definition of need in this particular case does not make the use of it it any less valid. And seeing as I don't want to argue the definition with you :
The definition of the word isn't the issue. "Wants" become "needs" when they are applied to a goal. For example, if I have $100,000 in my bank account with no planned use for it I might want more money but I don't need more. If I set a goal/objective of buying a house that costs $250,000 then the want becomes a need for an additional $150,000
if I am to achieve the goal.
This is the same issue with bring Maslow into the discussion. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs comes from his
Theory of Human Motivation. The entire concept is based on explaining what needs motivate (or block motivation of...) people when they set out to achieve a goal - what needs must be satisifed for the goal to be acheived. If there is no goal then the entire theory doesn't apply.