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Was versus were

 
 
Reply Tue 20 Nov, 2007 04:21 pm
The bus turned over.

1. None of the passengers were hurt.
2. None of the passengers was hurt.

Which is correct, 1 or 2?

Thanks
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Type: Discussion • Score: 1 • Views: 2,534 • Replies: 7
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contrex
 
  1  
Reply Tue 20 Nov, 2007 04:42 pm
Either. Do you wish to say that not one passenger was hurt, or do you wish to say that all of the passengers were unhurt?

"None" can be either singular or plural, depending on context.

None of my classmates were alive after the earthquake. (I am the only member of my school class to survive the earthquake.)

None of the boys was brave enough to climb the tree. (Not one of the boys was brave enough to climb the tree.)

Old grammar books may tell you that "none" is singular, but the Oxford English Dictionary says that, when acting as a pronoun, the denotation of "No people" is "Now the commoner usage, the singular being expressed by no one."
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kickycan
 
  1  
Reply Tue 20 Nov, 2007 04:54 pm
Ooh, I'm interested in this thread. I never know when to use "was" and when to use "were."

I hope this doesn't derail the thread too much, but...

"If I 'were' a rich man." Could it also be "If I 'was' a rich man?" Does it matter?

The "was" vs. "were" deal is one of the most confusing things for me in the english language.
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tinygiraffe
 
  1  
Reply Tue 20 Nov, 2007 05:24 pm
actually the difference is vital in political debates, contrex is right that you can use "was" in general, but if you're going to criticize american policy, it's important to use "were" or your argument will fail.

needless to say it's great to see this thread.
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contrex
 
  1  
Reply Wed 21 Nov, 2007 12:46 am
kickycan wrote:
"If I 'were' a rich man." Could it also be "If I 'was' a rich man?" Does it matter?


No, it cannot be "if I was a rich man". It matters in proper writing and if you are taking tests or exams. In informal speech and the writing of ignorant people it is often ignored.

Before, we were using the simple past tense. "None of the passengers was hurt", for example.

However, the phrase "if I were a rich man" uses the past subjunctive. We use the subjunctive to refer to past situations which might (or could) have happened.

The past subjunctive is identical with the past tense except in the case of the verb be, which uses were for all persons: If I were rich …, If he were rich …, If they were rich….

The past subjunctive is sometimes called the were subjunctive, since were is the only subjunctive form that is distinct from the indicative past tense. It appears chiefly in if clauses and in a few other constructions expressing hypothetical conditions:

If he were sorry, he'd have apologized by now.

I wish she weren't going away.

She's already acting as if she were going to be promoted.

Suppose she were to resign, what would you do then?
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Wed 21 Nov, 2007 08:19 pm
kickycan wrote:
"If I 'were' a rich man." Could it also be "If I 'was' a rich man?" Does it matter?


contrex wrote:

No, it cannot be "if I was a rich man". It matters in proper writing and if you are taking tests or exams. In informal speech and the writing of ignorant people it is often ignored.


I'm afraid, Contrex, and I say this with no rancor, that the ignorance here is yours.

contrex wrote:

However, the phrase "if I were a rich man" uses the past subjunctive. We use the subjunctive to refer to past situations which might (or could) have happened.


The subjunctive form 'were' is NOT used "to refer to past situations which might (or could) have happened". This form, as in your example, "if I were a rich man" refers to, in this case, a timeless situation which is the counterfactual of "I am not a rich man".

The form using 'was' as in, "if I was a rich man" is identical to the subjunctive 'were' form in every way with the exception of formality.


+++++++++++++++++++++++++++

JTT wrote:
CalamityJane wrote:
It gets confusing, doesn't it Wink


It is confusing, CalamityJane, because everyone has been mistaught using the same faulty logic that Professor Bailey refers to in his article,

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
HOW GRAMMARS OF ENGLISH HAVE MISSED THE BOAT
THERE'S BEEN MORE FLUMMOXING THAN MEETS THE EYE

Charles-James N. Bailey

Consider the possibility that English grammar has been misanalysed for centuries because of grammarians' accepting fundamentally flawed assumptions about grammar and, not least, because of a flawed view of the history of English; and that these failings have resulted in a huge disconnect between English grammars and the genius of the English that really exists among educated native-speakers.
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

JTT:

Now, let's get one thing straight.

"If I were you, ..." & "If I was you, ..." mean EXACTLY the same thing, ie. "I'm not you".

It matters not one iota that one is subjunctive in form and the other isn't. Both are conditionals AND both state counterfactuals. Counterfactuals are hypotheticals that occupy the UNREAL end of the hypothetical spectrum.

"If I go to Africa" is also a hypothetical; it just happens to occupy the part of the hypothetical spectrum that points to things that are more likely, in [this is important], the mind of the speaker.

We ENLs choose <if> to show greater possibility/higher likelihood and <if> to show a reduced likelihood to an impossible state.

It's not an "one or the other"; these things don't exist in isolation. It's more of a scalar thing, ranging from good chance to impossible.

People get all hung up on the word "subjunctive" when they don't even know what the meaning is. It describes some older English structures, some of which remain in modern English. Most subjunctive forms have been dropped from English, replaced by other structures.

Read this from Bartleby. To see the whole article go to the site listed below. Phoenix didn't go far enough in the article. He/She didn't read or post the appropriate sections.

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

http://www.bartleby.com/64/C001/061.html

English has had a subjunctive mood since Old English times, but most of the functions of the old subjunctive have been taken over by auxiliary verbs like may and should, and the subjunctive survives only in very limited situations.

if clauses?-the reality.

In practice, of course, many people ignore the rules. In fact, over the last 200 years even well-respected writers have tended to use the indicative was where the traditional rule would require the subjunctive were. A usage such as "If I was the only boy in the world" may break the rules, but it sounds perfectly natural.

Subjunctive after Wish

Yet another traditional rule requires you to use were rather than was in a contrary-to-fact statement that follows the verb wish: I wish I were (not was) lighter on my feet. Many writers continue to insist on this rule, but the indicative was in such clauses can be found in the works of many well-known writers.

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>


All that is required in modern English to state a counterfactual is a past tense FORM combined with <if>. I capitalize <form> because it's only the form that is being used. It actually has a future meaning, doesn't it?

"If I lived in Mexico, I'd choose Baja." is a counterfactual, BUT it is NOT a subjunctive FORM.

"If I was CalamityJane, ..." is also a counterfactual, but it too, is not a subjunctive FORM. No matter, it means the same thing as,

"If I were CalamityJane, ... "

What is the difference between 'was & were' in counterfactuals? 'were' is simply used in more formal situations.



http://www.able2know.org/forums/viewtopic.php?t=43642&postdays=0&postorder=asc&start=10
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contrex
 
  1  
Reply Thu 22 Nov, 2007 12:42 am
Sorry JTT, but the ignorance is mostly yours. Your copy and paste job is mostly opinionated American English blog stuff.
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JTT
 
  1  
Reply Thu 22 Nov, 2007 10:28 am
contrex wrote:
Sorry JTT, but the ignorance is mostly yours. Your copy and paste job is mostly opinionated American English blog stuff.


"mostly". At least you're starting to come around, Contrex. Smile

The "blog" was not a blog. It was another A2K thread on the same issue.


The opinion,

"No, it cannot be "if I was a rich man". It matters in proper writing and if you are taking tests or exams. In informal speech and the writing of ignorant people it is often ignored.".

came from you, Contrex. Why would you believe such a thing?
0 Replies
 
 

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