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smoke/d

 
 
Reply Sat 27 Oct, 2007 09:34 am
Would you mind if I smoke/smoked a cigarette?

Should I use 'smoke'? If both words can be used, is there a difference in the meaning of the sentences?

Many thanks.
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Type: Discussion • Score: 1 • Views: 583 • Replies: 16
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contrex
 
  1  
Reply Sat 27 Oct, 2007 10:22 am
Will you mind if I smoke a cigarette?

or

Would you mind if I smoked a cigarette?
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Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Sat 27 Oct, 2007 10:26 am
Hi Contrex

Would you mind if I smoked a cigarette? This is more polite than "Will you mind..." Am I correct?

Many thanks.
0 Replies
 
contrex
 
  1  
Reply Sat 27 Oct, 2007 11:11 am
Yoong Liat wrote:
Would you mind if I smoked a cigarette? This is more polite than "Will you mind..." Am I correct?


You are definitely correct!

In BrE, this kind of polite query is usually expressed in the conditional.

In former times a gentleman would ask a lady "May I smoke?".

(Note: not "Can I smoke?"). When I was a small child at school in the 1950s, if you asked the teacher, "Can I go to the toilet, Miss?", the reply was "You can, but you may not".
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Oct, 2007 04:05 am
Thanks, Contrex.
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McTag
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Oct, 2007 05:48 am
Also...

"Do you mind if I smoke?"

-"I don't mind if you burst into flames!"
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contrex
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Oct, 2007 06:00 am
"Do you smoke after making love?"
"I don't know - I've never looked!"
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Francis
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Oct, 2007 06:04 am
You guys are bad! Twisted Evil
0 Replies
 
dadpad
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Oct, 2007 07:51 am
contrex wrote:
"Do you smoke after making love?"
"I don't know - I've never looked!"


Theres a fraction too much friction.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 29 Oct, 2007 10:39 pm
Re: smoke/d
Yoong Liat wrote:
Would you mind if I smoke/smoked a cigarette?

Should I use 'smoke'? If both words can be used, is there a difference in the meaning of the sentences?

Many thanks.


You can use either smoke or smoked, YL.

Probably, the more common use would be the past tense FORM because it being more indirect, it is more polite. But people don;t always feel the need to be "extra" polite so many opt for the present tense FORM.

So, well the meaning is the same, the nuance is different.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Mon 29 Oct, 2007 10:43 pm
contrex wrote:
(Note: not "Can I smoke?"). When I was a small child at school in the 1950s, if you asked the teacher, "Can I go to the toilet, Miss?", the reply was "You can, but you may not".



Contrex,

This was a complete fiction in the 50s just as much as it is a complete fiction today. You, as a child, had a much better grasp of English than your teacher.
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McTag
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Oct, 2007 02:55 am
JTT wrote:
contrex wrote:
(Note: not "Can I smoke?"). When I was a small child at school in the 1950s, if you asked the teacher, "Can I go to the toilet, Miss?", the reply was "You can, but you may not".



Contrex,

This was a complete fiction in the 50s just as much as it is a complete fiction today. You, as a child, had a much better grasp of English than your teacher.


Don't agree.
0 Replies
 
contrex
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Oct, 2007 03:59 am
I don't agree either. This is not a simple matter of grammar. There is no such thing as one single "English". I was brought up in Sarf London. (Tulse Hill) The local kids spoke like Cockneys. Making a distinction between "I can" - "I am able to" and "I may" - "I have permission to" is a class indicator in BrE speech. In those days teachers felt that it was part of their job to impose "posh" speech patterns on their little charges.
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Oct, 2007 08:34 am
contrex wrote:
I don't agree either. This is not a simple matter of grammar. There is no such thing as one single "English". I was brought up in Sarf London. (Tulse Hill) The local kids spoke like Cockneys. Making a distinction between "I can" - "I am able to" and "I may" - "I have permission to" is a class indicator in BrE speech. In those days teachers felt that it was part of their job to impose "posh" speech patterns on their little charges.


Imposing rules that are false has nothing to do with what language actually is. If I decide that English should change its word order from SVO to VOS simply because I believe it sounds more posh, does that have any validity?

In every dialect of English,

"Can I go to the bathroom?"

almost always means,

"Do I have permission to go to the bathroom?"

unless of course, someone is asking their doctor about their ability after an operation [or some other similar situation].

"Can I use your pen?"

It's simply absurd to suggest that this means,

"Do I have the ability to use your pen?".

There's nothing wrong with encouraging children to be more polite in certain situations but why tell them lies about language to do so. That's both idiotic and counterproductive.
0 Replies
 
contrex
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Oct, 2007 09:31 am
JTT, I find myself in 100% complete agreement with your viewpoint.
0 Replies
 
Yoong Liat
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Oct, 2007 09:33 am
Hi JTT

What Contrex said is also stated in an English usage book. The writer states that if a student asks, "Can I go to the toilet?" the teacher can say, "You can go, but I won't let you go."

The writer is in favour of "May ... "

Hope this will prove that what Contrex said is also supported by an English authority.

Regards
0 Replies
 
JTT
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Oct, 2007 10:46 am
Yoong Liat wrote:
Hi JTT

What Contrex said is also stated in an English usage book. The writer states that if a student asks, "Can I go to the toilet?" the teacher can say, "You can go, but I won't let you go."

The writer is in favour of "May ... "

Hope this will prove that what Contrex said is also supported by an English authority.

Regards


Hi YL.

By and large, "usage" grammar books are not worth anything. The people who write these books are not in any way, shape or form, language experts. They are people who simply repeat old fictions about language.

Here's an article that will help explain the role these "language experts" have in the field of language science.

Quote:


Obviously, you need to build in some kind of rules, but what kind? Prescriptive rules? Imagine trying to build a talking machine by designing it to obey rules like "Don't split infinitives" or "Never begin a sentence with [because]." It would just sit there. In fact, we already have machines that don't split infinitives; they're called screwdrivers, bathtubs, cappuccino- makers, and so on.

Prescriptive rules are useless without the much more fundamental rules that create the sentences to begin with. These rules are never mentioned in style manuals or school grammars because the authors correctly assume that anyone capable of reading the manuals must already have the rules. No one, not even a valley girl, has to be told not to say [Apples the eat boy] or [Who did you meet John and?] or the vast, vast majority of the trillions of mathematically possible combinations of words.

So when a scientist considers all the high-tech mental machinery needed to arrange words into ordinary sentences, prescriptive rules are, at best, inconsequential little decorations. The very fact that they have to be drilled shows that they are alien to the natural workings of the language system. One can choose to obsess over prescriptive rules, but they have no more to do with human language than the criteria for judging cats at a cat show have to do with mammalian biology.

http://pinker.wjh.harvard.edu/articles/media/1994_01_24_thenewrepublic.html




What Professor Pinker is saying is that these prescriptive "rules" that are found in usage manuals and style manuals are not real rules that describe how language really works. When someone demands arbitraily that language must be a certain way, then it's obvious that this is only a personal opinion.

Think about it for a minute. If personal opinions were all that guided us in llanguage, communication would be impossible. Every native speaker of every language knows the real rules of their language because they communicate daily using the real rules.

Language isn't decided by one or a number of people being "in favor of" a certain structure/collocation. The meaning, the deference or degree of politeness, the nuance we intend; these are some of the things that determine language choice.

What of the other less polite than 'may' words we use. Why are there no prescriptivists railing against 'will' or 'would' or 'could'. 'could' has an identical meaning to 'can' used for permission, as does 'may'.

They all say, "Is it possible for me to do something". But each has a special nuance that, obviously, children understand better than many adults.

Now for the writers of those "usage manuals":

Quote:


The legislators of "correct English," in fact, are an informal network of copy-editors, dictionary usage panelists, style manual writers, English teachers, essayists, and pundits. Their authority, they claim, comes from their dedication to implementing standards that have served the language well in the past, especially in the prose of its finest writers, and that maximize its clarity, logic, consistency, elegance, precision, stability, and expressive range. William Safire, who writes the weekly column "On Language" for the [New York Times Magazine], calls himself a "language maven," from the Yiddish word meaning expert, and this gives us a convenient label for the entire group.



To whom I say: Maven, shmaven! [Kibbitzers] and [nudniks] is more like it. For here are the remarkable facts. Most of the prescriptive rules of the language mavens make no sense on any level. They are bits of folklore that originated for screwball reasons several hundred years ago and have perpetuated themselves ever since. For as long as they have existed, speakers have flouted them, spawning identical plaints about the imminent decline of the language century after century. All the best writers in English have been among the flagrant flouters.

The rules conform neither to logic nor tradition, and if they were ever followed they would force writers into fuzzy, clumsy, wordy, ambiguous, incomprehensible prose, in which certain thoughts are not expressible at all. Indeed, most of the "ignorant errors" these rules are supposed to correct display an elegant logic and an acute sensitivity to the grammatical texture of the language, to which the mavens are oblivious.

http://pinker.wjh.harvard.edu/articles/media/1994_01_24_thenewrepublic.html



Read the whole article, YL. In it, Professor Pinker debunks many of these usage manual "rules". You'll find it highly enlightening.
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