parados wrote:I see others have beat me to the "declaration of war" requirement in the Constitution.
Another thing you should check out is the Posse Comitatus law MM. Then you may wish to view the War Powers Act. The President can NOT use the military anywhere he wants to, any time he wants to, for as long as he wants to. He is restricted by legislation passed by Congress under their powers.
This is the 3rd time I've tried to answer you,lets see if I can finish this time.
First of all,lets examine the "declaration of war" requirement.
Yes,its true.
ONLY Congress can declare war. But,every President since WW2 has sent the troops into a combat situation WITHOUT a declaration of war,so thats nothing new.
Unless you are holding Bush to a different standard then other Presidents.
For example,Korea,Vietnam,Grenada,Somalia,Panama,Lebanon,Desert Storm,etc. none of them had an official "declaration of war".
As for the War Powers Act,lets look at that...
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/War_Powers_Resolution
Quote:The purpose of the War Powers Resolution is to ensure that Congress and the President share in making decisions that may get the U.S. involved in hostilities. Portions of the War Powers Resolution require the President to consult with Congress prior to the start of any hostilities as well as regularly until U.S. armed forces are no longer engaged in hostilities (Sec. 3); and to remove U.S. armed forces from hostilities if Congress has not declared war or passed a resolution authorizing the use of force within 60 days (Sec. 5(b)). Following an official request by the President to Congress, the time limit can be extended by an additional 30 days (presumably when "unavoidable military necessity" requires additional action for a safe withdrawal).
So,every President has had to meet the requirements of the WPA.
Lets look at the WPA itself...
http://www.thecre.com/fedlaw/legal22/warpow.htm
Quote:PURPOSE AND POLICY
SEC. 2. (a)
It is the purpose of this joint resolution to fulfill the intent of the framers of the Constitution of the United States and insure that the collective judgement of both the Congress and the President will apply to the introduction of United States Armed Forces into hostilities, or into situations where imminent involvement in hostilities is clearly indicate by the circumstances, and to the continued use of such forces in hostilities or in such situations.
SEC. 2. (b)
Under article I, section 8, of the Constitution, it is specifically provided that the Congress shall have the power to make all laws necessary and proper for carrying into execution, not only its own powers but also all other powers vested by the Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any department or officer thereof.
SEC. 2. (c)
The constitutional powers of the President as Commander-in-Chief to introduce United States Armed Forces into hostilities, or into situations where imminent involvement in hostilities is clearly indicated by the circumstances, are exercised only pursuant to (1) a declaration of war, (2) specific statutory authorization, or (3) a national emergency created by attack upon the United States, its territories or possessions, or its armed forces
The first 2 sections do deal with congress,mainly they say that BOTH Congress and the President must concur before the troops are used.
But,lets look at the third section,you seem to be ignoring that part.
The President can send troops into combat if any one of three conditions are met,so lets examine those.
1) a declaration of war..
We already know that war has not been "declared" by congress since WW2,so that is out.
2)specific statutory authorization
That requirement has been met,not once but twice...
Quote:Congress's Joint Resolution September 14, 2001
emphasis added
SEC. 2. AUTHORIZATION FOR USE OF UNITED STATES ARMED FORCES.
...
(a) IN GENERAL- That the President is authorized to use all necessary and appropriate force against those nations, organizations, or persons he determines planned, authorized, committed, or aided the terrorist attacks that occurred on September 11, 2001, or harbored such organizations or persons, in order to prevent any future acts of international terrorism against the United States by such nations, organizations or persons.
So,this statutory resolution allows the President to use the military against ANYONE or ANY country that he determines was involved in the 9/11 attacks.
There is also this one...
Quote:Congress's Joint Resolution Oct. 16, 2002
Public Law 107-243 107th Congress Joint Resolution (H.J. Res. 114) To authorize the use of United States Armed Forces against Iraq.
...
[10th]Whereas members of al Qaida, an organization bearing responsibility for attacks on the United States, its citizens, and interests, including the attacks that occurred on September 11, 2001, are known to be in Iraq;
[11th]Whereas Iraq continues to aid and harbor other international terrorist organizations, including organizations that threaten the lives and safety of United States citizens;
BTW,this resolution was asked for by the Dems in Congress BEFORE they would go along with the use of force.
So,that meets the requirement for "specific statutory authorization".
And the third requirement is an attack on the US,and even you cannot deny that happened.
So,that covers the WPA.
Now,lets look at "posse comitatus"
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Posse_Comitatus_Act
Quote:The Posse Comitatus Act is a United States federal law (18 U.S.C. ยง 1385) passed on June 16, 1878 after the end of Reconstruction. The Act was intended to prohibit Federal troops from supervising elections in former Confederate states. It generally prohibits Federal military personnel and units of the United States National Guard under Federal authority from acting in a law enforcement capacity within the United States, except where expressly authorized by the Constitution or Congress. The Posse Comitatus Act and the Insurrection Act substantially limit the powers of the Federal government to use the military for law enforcement.
The original act referred only to the United States Army. The Air Force was added in 1956, and the Navy and the Marine Corps have been included by a regulation of the Department of Defense. This law is often mentioned when it appears that the Department of Defense is interfering in domestic disturbances.
This act has been violated by at least one President,namely when Bill Clinton used tanks in Waco.
But,that is irrelevant to this discussion.
Lets look at exactly what it says...
http://www.uscg.mil/hq/g-cp/comrel/factfile/Factcards/PosseComitatus.html
Posse Comitatus Act
Quote:Source: G-OPL
"POSSE COMITATUS ACT" (18 USC 1385): A Reconstruction Era criminal law proscribing use of Army (later, Air Force) to "execute the laws" except where expressly authorized by Constitution or Congress. Limit on use of military for civilian law enforcement also applies to Navy by regulation. Dec '81 additional laws were enacted (codified 10 USC 371-78) clarifying permissible military assistance to civilian law enforcement agencies--including the Coast Guard--especially in combating drug smuggling into the United States. Posse Comitatus clarifications emphasize supportive and technical assistance (e.g., use of facilities, vessels, aircraft, intelligence, tech aid, surveillance, etc.) while generally prohibiting direct participation of DoD personnel in law enforcement (e.g., search, seizure, and arrests). For example, Coast Guard Law Enforcement Detachments (LEDETS) serve aboard Navy vessels and perform the actual boardings of interdicted suspect drug smuggling vessels and, if needed, arrest their crews). Positive results have been realized especially from Navy ship/aircraft involvement.
Basically,it says that the military CANNOT be used for civilian law enforcement,except in very specific circumstances.
That act is one of the things that keeps the military out of civilian affairs.
Granted,it has been violated at least twice that I know of,by Bill Clinton at Waco and then also by Eisenhower when he used the 101st airborne to forcibly integrate schools in Arkansas.
But,how do you get from the Presidents role as CinC to the "posse comitatus act"?
They are two different things.