No, the shoe does not fit me, but that is hardly the point when you are attempting to forward a logical position which is not in fact logical.
In Post [url=http://www.able2know.com/forums/viewtopic.php?p=2576576#2576576]#2576576[/url], 'real life' wrote:Moral relativism is itself inconsistent , because it allows that all conceptions of morality are equally valid --- EXCEPT for the absolutist view. THAT is totally invalid, doncha know! (The post # above is a link to the post being quoted.)
Now, this may be true that in your universe, because you have introduced the term "moral relativism," but have not defined it--therefore we can't be sure. However, if the position being held is that all "moral" judgments are subjective, then yes, they are all equivalent (which might possible mean the same as "valid"), in that they are subjective. But they cannot possibly be both absolute and subjective--absolutes partake of a universal and eternal objectivity which is at the least implicit, if not explicitly stated by reference to someone's imaginary friend.
Your remark came at the end of a series of exchanges with Eorl, which derived from his remark to the effect:
Quote: OK, so you and your country disagree with that. It's simply proof that such things are subjective.
As Eorl specified that moral judgments (at least in the case of capital punishment) are subjective, and proceeded from there to point out that what makes things pragmatically "right" or "wrong" derives from the preponderance of opinion, then it is possible (but not axiomatic) that any moral judgment can be valid, but never absolute.
Of course, it is logical to state that if not all moral judgments were valid, there of necessity be an absolute standard. I have not made such a claim, however, and if Eorl made such a claim, i missed that.