Quote: that of the finding of that "spatial separate" particles acted as a single entity)
Yes, that's the bit that piqued my interest too... I've been pondering this along with Hume's thoughts and the lack of causality involved in perception.
Firstly, if the universe began as a singularity, does this mean that every quantum event/particle/waveform was at that point in direct interaction with every other? If yes, then it seems reasonable to suppose that this is still the case now, based on the findings of Bohr described in that article. So what I have in my mind now is a singular indivisible universe; one in which all quantum particles/waveforms do not exist and interact with others as discrete well-defined objects in their own right, rather they are all one and inseperable. The universe has become a single indivisible and inscrutible existence in which causality cannot exist since there is only oneness. I can't help but draw parellels with the oneness of thing, thinger and perception we were discussing earlier.
In this universe, we might see that event A is accompanied by event B and think that A was the cause of B. According to Hume, there is no rational reason to arrive at this belief and I'm inclined to agree. Rather we should see event A and B as one event (which would be a different event(s) if A and B were not conjoined) and see no reason to not extend this to the whole universe, seeing it as one indivisible event, undefinable in terms of artificially perceived parts.
What has all this to do with the original question of free-will though? If there is a "will" I suppose we can say that it is free from common "causality." If there is a will, it is the will of the universe and it is as free as the univserse is free to be. I'm not sure that is any real answer to the question though.